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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
A borrower makes a payment after limitation has expired. Which statement is most accurate?
Correct
Section 19 requires payment before expiry of the prescribed period. A post-expiry payment does not automatically revive the claim under that section; a qualifying written promise under section 25(3) of the Contract Act is a separate issue.
Incorrect
Section 19 requires payment before expiry of the prescribed period. A post-expiry payment does not automatically revive the claim under that section; a qualifying written promise under section 25(3) of the Contract Act is a separate issue.
Unattempted
Section 19 requires payment before expiry of the prescribed period. A post-expiry payment does not automatically revive the claim under that section; a qualifying written promise under section 25(3) of the Contract Act is a separate issue.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
Which law is most directly relevant to proving entries in a bank’s ledgers and electronic banking records in court?
Correct
The Bankers’ Books Evidence Act specifically addresses the evidentiary use of entries in bankers’ books, including qualifying electronic records.
Incorrect
The Bankers’ Books Evidence Act specifically addresses the evidentiary use of entries in bankers’ books, including qualifying electronic records.
Unattempted
The Bankers’ Books Evidence Act specifically addresses the evidentiary use of entries in bankers’ books, including qualifying electronic records.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
A customer alleges that an entry in a certified bank statement is incorrect. What is the correct evidentiary view?
Correct
Certification does not make an entry conclusive in every respect. It enables evidentiary use, while the court can assess challenges and other evidence.
Incorrect
Certification does not make an entry conclusive in every respect. It enables evidentiary use, while the court can assess challenges and other evidence.
Unattempted
Certification does not make an entry conclusive in every respect. It enables evidentiary use, while the court can assess challenges and other evidence.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Which type of complaint is most clearly within the RBI Ombudsman’s service-redress remit, subject to Scheme conditions?
Correct
The Scheme addresses eligible complaints about deficiency in service by covered regulated entities. It is not a general forum for criminal convictions, land-title disputes or legislative changes.
Incorrect
The Scheme addresses eligible complaints about deficiency in service by covered regulated entities. It is not a general forum for criminal convictions, land-title disputes or legislative changes.
Unattempted
The Scheme addresses eligible complaints about deficiency in service by covered regulated entities. It is not a general forum for criminal convictions, land-title disputes or legislative changes.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Which is the most accurate statement about compensation under the RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme?
Correct
The Scheme specifies the circumstances and limits for compensation, including distinctions between direct loss and other forms of loss. Current limits should be verified from RBI’s latest official Scheme/circular.
Incorrect
The Scheme specifies the circumstances and limits for compensation, including distinctions between direct loss and other forms of loss. Current limits should be verified from RBI’s latest official Scheme/circular.
Unattempted
The Scheme specifies the circumstances and limits for compensation, including distinctions between direct loss and other forms of loss. Current limits should be verified from RBI’s latest official Scheme/circular.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
A customer complains to a bank, but the bank has not replied after 30 days. What is the general position under the RBI Integrated Ombudsman Scheme?
Correct
If the regulated entity does not reply within 30 days of receiving the complaint, the customer may generally approach the Ombudsman, subject to other Scheme requirements.
Incorrect
If the regulated entity does not reply within 30 days of receiving the complaint, the customer may generally approach the Ombudsman, subject to other Scheme requirements.
Unattempted
If the regulated entity does not reply within 30 days of receiving the complaint, the customer may generally approach the Ombudsman, subject to other Scheme requirements.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Under the MSMED Act, if the buyer and supplier agree on a payment period shorter than 45 days, which statement is correct?
Correct
The 45-day rule is a maximum for a written agreement, not a mandatory minimum. A shorter agreed period may apply, and statutory interest can arise if payment is delayed beyond the applicable date.
Incorrect
The 45-day rule is a maximum for a written agreement, not a mandatory minimum. A shorter agreed period may apply, and statutory interest can arise if payment is delayed beyond the applicable date.
Unattempted
The 45-day rule is a maximum for a written agreement, not a mandatory minimum. A shorter agreed period may apply, and statutory interest can arise if payment is delayed beyond the applicable date.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Which type of enterprise is specifically protected by the MSMED Act’s delayed-payment provisions for purposes of the supplier protections?
Correct
The delayed-payment provisions specifically protect micro and small suppliers within the statutory definitions. Enterprise classification and registration requirements should be checked under current law.
Incorrect
The delayed-payment provisions specifically protect micro and small suppliers within the statutory definitions. Enterprise classification and registration requirements should be checked under current law.
Unattempted
The delayed-payment provisions specifically protect micro and small suppliers within the statutory definitions. Enterprise classification and registration requirements should be checked under current law.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
A supplier’s MSEFC reference is admitted. Which process may the Council undertake under the MSMED Act?
Correct
The MSEFC first undertakes conciliation and, if it fails, may itself take up arbitration or refer the dispute to an institution/centre as provided by the Act.
Incorrect
The MSEFC first undertakes conciliation and, if it fails, may itself take up arbitration or refer the dispute to an institution/centre as provided by the Act.
Unattempted
The MSEFC first undertakes conciliation and, if it fails, may itself take up arbitration or refer the dispute to an institution/centre as provided by the Act.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
What is the general legal effect of an MSEFC award on a buyer who challenges it?
Correct
Section 19 generally requires the buyer to deposit 75% of the amount in terms of the award/decree before the application to set it aside is entertained, subject to the statute.
Incorrect
Section 19 generally requires the buyer to deposit 75% of the amount in terms of the award/decree before the application to set it aside is entertained, subject to the statute.
Unattempted
Section 19 generally requires the buyer to deposit 75% of the amount in terms of the award/decree before the application to set it aside is entertained, subject to the statute.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Which statement about the IBC’s overriding clause is most accurate?
Correct
Section 238 provides overriding effect where the Code is inconsistent with another law. Application requires analysis of the conflict and the relevant statutory/judicial framework.
Incorrect
Section 238 provides overriding effect where the Code is inconsistent with another law. Application requires analysis of the conflict and the relevant statutory/judicial framework.
Unattempted
Section 238 provides overriding effect where the Code is inconsistent with another law. Application requires analysis of the conflict and the relevant statutory/judicial framework.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
A corporate debtor’s CIRP is admitted while a bank’s recovery suit is pending. What is the likely effect on the suit against the corporate debtor?
Correct
Section 14 generally prohibits institution or continuation of suits/proceedings against the corporate debtor during the moratorium, subject to the Code’s exclusions and judicial interpretation.
Incorrect
Section 14 generally prohibits institution or continuation of suits/proceedings against the corporate debtor during the moratorium, subject to the Code’s exclusions and judicial interpretation.
Unattempted
Section 14 generally prohibits institution or continuation of suits/proceedings against the corporate debtor during the moratorium, subject to the Code’s exclusions and judicial interpretation.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
Which authority hears appeals against NCLT orders under the IBC for corporate persons?
Correct
The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) hears appeals from NCLT orders under the IBC, subject to statutory limits and timelines.
Incorrect
The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) hears appeals from NCLT orders under the IBC, subject to statutory limits and timelines.
Unattempted
The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) hears appeals from NCLT orders under the IBC, subject to statutory limits and timelines.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
What is the general appeal period to NCLAT under section 61 of the IBC against an NCLT order?
Correct
Section 61 generally provides 30 days for appeal, with a further period not exceeding 15 days if sufficient cause is shown. (Check the current statutory text for the specific order.)
Incorrect
Section 61 generally provides 30 days for appeal, with a further period not exceeding 15 days if sufficient cause is shown. (Check the current statutory text for the specific order.)
Unattempted
Section 61 generally provides 30 days for appeal, with a further period not exceeding 15 days if sufficient cause is shown. (Check the current statutory text for the specific order.)
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Which statement about a resolution plan’s feasibility and viability is correct?
Correct
Section 30(4) requires the CoC to consider feasibility and viability, the manner of distribution and other prescribed matters when approving a resolution plan.
Incorrect
Section 30(4) requires the CoC to consider feasibility and viability, the manner of distribution and other prescribed matters when approving a resolution plan.
Unattempted
Section 30(4) requires the CoC to consider feasibility and viability, the manner of distribution and other prescribed matters when approving a resolution plan.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
Under the IBC, the resolution professional should verify claims because:
Correct
The insolvency professional collects and verifies claims under the IBC and regulations. This supports the creditor list, CoC composition and process administration.
Incorrect
The insolvency professional collects and verifies claims under the IBC and regulations. This supports the creditor list, CoC composition and process administration.
Unattempted
The insolvency professional collects and verifies claims under the IBC and regulations. This supports the creditor list, CoC composition and process administration.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Which is a principal role of the liquidator under the IBC?
Correct
The liquidator performs statutory functions including custody/control of assets, claim verification, realisation of assets and distribution under the Code.
Incorrect
The liquidator performs statutory functions including custody/control of assets, claim verification, realisation of assets and distribution under the Code.
Unattempted
The liquidator performs statutory functions including custody/control of assets, claim verification, realisation of assets and distribution under the Code.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
A bank wants to claim as a secured creditor in liquidation. What is important?
Correct
Secured status must be supported by the security interest and relevant records. The creditor must comply with liquidation procedures and decide whether to relinquish or realise security under section 52.
Incorrect
Secured status must be supported by the security interest and relevant records. The creditor must comply with liquidation procedures and decide whether to relinquish or realise security under section 52.
Unattempted
Secured status must be supported by the security interest and relevant records. The creditor must comply with liquidation procedures and decide whether to relinquish or realise security under section 52.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Which of the following best describes the limitation-law principle of continuing breach?
Correct
Whether a wrong is continuing depends on the nature of the legal duty and facts. A mere continuing effect of a completed breach is not necessarily a continuing breach that restarts limitation.
Incorrect
Whether a wrong is continuing depends on the nature of the legal duty and facts. A mere continuing effect of a completed breach is not necessarily a continuing breach that restarts limitation.
Unattempted
Whether a wrong is continuing depends on the nature of the legal duty and facts. A mere continuing effect of a completed breach is not necessarily a continuing breach that restarts limitation.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Why should a bank maintain a complete chronology of demand notices, acknowledgments and part-payments?
Correct
A chronology supports limitation analysis and proves compliance with statutory procedures. Dates and documents can determine whether a claim or enforcement action is within time.
Incorrect
A chronology supports limitation analysis and proves compliance with statutory procedures. Dates and documents can determine whether a claim or enforcement action is within time.
Unattempted
A chronology supports limitation analysis and proves compliance with statutory procedures. Dates and documents can determine whether a claim or enforcement action is within time.