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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Under the IBC, the corporate insolvency resolution process (CIRP) is initiated against a corporate debtor by an application from which of the following?
Correct
The IBC permits eligible financial creditors, operational creditors and corporate applicants to initiate CIRP, provided statutory requirements are met.
Incorrect
The IBC permits eligible financial creditors, operational creditors and corporate applicants to initiate CIRP, provided statutory requirements are met.
Unattempted
The IBC permits eligible financial creditors, operational creditors and corporate applicants to initiate CIRP, provided statutory requirements are met.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
A financial creditor initiates CIRP under section 7 of the IBC. What is the key nature of the claim?
Correct
A section 7 application is filed by a financial creditor in respect of a financial debt and default. The definition of financial debt is set out in section 5(8) of the IBC.
Incorrect
A section 7 application is filed by a financial creditor in respect of a financial debt and default. The definition of financial debt is set out in section 5(8) of the IBC.
Unattempted
A section 7 application is filed by a financial creditor in respect of a financial debt and default. The definition of financial debt is set out in section 5(8) of the IBC.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
An operational creditor generally must first serve which notice before filing a section 9 CIRP application?
Correct
Section 8 requires an operational creditor to deliver a demand notice or copy of an invoice demanding payment. The corporate debtor has 10 days to bring to notice a dispute or payment, after which a section 9 application may be considered.
Incorrect
Section 8 requires an operational creditor to deliver a demand notice or copy of an invoice demanding payment. The corporate debtor has 10 days to bring to notice a dispute or payment, after which a section 9 application may be considered.
Unattempted
Section 8 requires an operational creditor to deliver a demand notice or copy of an invoice demanding payment. The corporate debtor has 10 days to bring to notice a dispute or payment, after which a section 9 application may be considered.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Under the IBC, what is the general consequence of admission of a CIRP application?
Correct
Admission triggers CIRP and the section 14 moratorium, which restricts specified proceedings, enforcement and transfers during the moratorium, subject to statutory exceptions.
Incorrect
Admission triggers CIRP and the section 14 moratorium, which restricts specified proceedings, enforcement and transfers during the moratorium, subject to statutory exceptions.
Unattempted
Admission triggers CIRP and the section 14 moratorium, which restricts specified proceedings, enforcement and transfers during the moratorium, subject to statutory exceptions.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Which body approves a resolution plan under the IBC after the required voting threshold is met?
Correct
The Committee of Creditors votes on the resolution plan. The plan must then be approved by the NCLT under section 31 if it meets the Code’s requirements.
Incorrect
The Committee of Creditors votes on the resolution plan. The plan must then be approved by the NCLT under section 31 if it meets the Code’s requirements.
Unattempted
The Committee of Creditors votes on the resolution plan. The plan must then be approved by the NCLT under section 31 if it meets the Code’s requirements.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Under the IBC, the minimum voting share generally required for the Committee of Creditors to approve a resolution plan is:
Correct
Section 30(4) generally requires approval by at least 66% of the voting share of financial creditors, subject to the Code’s current wording and any applicable amendments.
Incorrect
Section 30(4) generally requires approval by at least 66% of the voting share of financial creditors, subject to the Code’s current wording and any applicable amendments.
Unattempted
Section 30(4) generally requires approval by at least 66% of the voting share of financial creditors, subject to the Code’s current wording and any applicable amendments.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Which statement about the IBC moratorium is correct?
Correct
Section 14 imposes a time-bound moratorium during CIRP. It is not a permanent extinguishment of security, and the Code contains specific exceptions.
Incorrect
Section 14 imposes a time-bound moratorium during CIRP. It is not a permanent extinguishment of security, and the Code contains specific exceptions.
Unattempted
Section 14 imposes a time-bound moratorium during CIRP. It is not a permanent extinguishment of security, and the Code contains specific exceptions.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Who is appointed to manage the affairs of a corporate debtor during CIRP, subject to the IBC framework?
Correct
An interim resolution professional is appointed on admission, and a resolution professional subsequently performs the functions prescribed by the IBC. Management powers vest as provided by the Code.
Incorrect
An interim resolution professional is appointed on admission, and a resolution professional subsequently performs the functions prescribed by the IBC. Management powers vest as provided by the Code.
Unattempted
An interim resolution professional is appointed on admission, and a resolution professional subsequently performs the functions prescribed by the IBC. Management powers vest as provided by the Code.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Under the IBC, liquidation of a corporate debtor may follow when:
Correct
Liquidation is ordered by the adjudicating authority when grounds under section 33 are met, including failure to approve a resolution plan within the permitted process or a qualifying CoC decision.
Incorrect
Liquidation is ordered by the adjudicating authority when grounds under section 33 are met, including failure to approve a resolution plan within the permitted process or a qualifying CoC decision.
Unattempted
Liquidation is ordered by the adjudicating authority when grounds under section 33 are met, including failure to approve a resolution plan within the permitted process or a qualifying CoC decision.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Which statement accurately distinguishes a financial creditor from an operational creditor under the IBC?
Correct
The Code distinguishes financial debt from operational debt. Classification can affect initiation, representation and distribution, although both categories have rights under the IBC.
Incorrect
The Code distinguishes financial debt from operational debt. Classification can affect initiation, representation and distribution, although both categories have rights under the IBC.
Unattempted
The Code distinguishes financial debt from operational debt. Classification can affect initiation, representation and distribution, although both categories have rights under the IBC.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
The Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, 1891 primarily addresses:
Correct
The Act facilitates proof of banking entries in legal proceedings through certified copies, subject to statutory requirements. It does not by itself decide the underlying merits of a dispute.
Incorrect
The Act facilitates proof of banking entries in legal proceedings through certified copies, subject to statutory requirements. It does not by itself decide the underlying merits of a dispute.
Unattempted
The Act facilitates proof of banking entries in legal proceedings through certified copies, subject to statutory requirements. It does not by itself decide the underlying merits of a dispute.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
For the purposes of the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act, which may constitute a banker’s book under the amended definition?
Correct
The definition includes records used in the ordinary course of banking business and accommodates computer printouts and electronic records subject to the Act’s requirements.
Incorrect
The definition includes records used in the ordinary course of banking business and accommodates computer printouts and electronic records subject to the Act’s requirements.
Unattempted
The definition includes records used in the ordinary course of banking business and accommodates computer printouts and electronic records subject to the Act’s requirements.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
A bank produces a certified copy of an account entry in litigation. What is the general evidentiary effect under the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act?
Correct
A properly certified copy can be received as prima facie evidence of the existence of the entry and the matters, transactions and accounts recorded, but it is not necessarily conclusive proof of every disputed issue.
Incorrect
A properly certified copy can be received as prima facie evidence of the existence of the entry and the matters, transactions and accounts recorded, but it is not necessarily conclusive proof of every disputed issue.
Unattempted
A properly certified copy can be received as prima facie evidence of the existence of the entry and the matters, transactions and accounts recorded, but it is not necessarily conclusive proof of every disputed issue.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Which safeguard is relevant when electronic bank records are produced as evidence?
Correct
Electronic records must meet the applicable statutory requirements for certification and authenticity under the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act and, where relevant, the evidence law in force.
Incorrect
Electronic records must meet the applicable statutory requirements for certification and authenticity under the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act and, where relevant, the evidence law in force.
Unattempted
Electronic records must meet the applicable statutory requirements for certification and authenticity under the Bankers’ Books Evidence Act and, where relevant, the evidence law in force.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Under the Limitation Act, 1963, the main purpose of limitation periods is to:
Correct
Limitation law generally bars the remedy after the prescribed period, subject to exceptions. It promotes timely litigation and legal certainty; it does not ordinarily extinguish the underlying debt in every context.
Incorrect
Limitation law generally bars the remedy after the prescribed period, subject to exceptions. It promotes timely litigation and legal certainty; it does not ordinarily extinguish the underlying debt in every context.
Unattempted
Limitation law generally bars the remedy after the prescribed period, subject to exceptions. It promotes timely litigation and legal certainty; it does not ordinarily extinguish the underlying debt in every context.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
For many ordinary money claims, limitation generally begins when:
Correct
The commencement date depends on the relevant Schedule article and facts. In many money claims, time runs from when the cause of action or right to sue accrues.
Incorrect
The commencement date depends on the relevant Schedule article and facts. In many money claims, time runs from when the cause of action or right to sue accrues.
Unattempted
The commencement date depends on the relevant Schedule article and facts. In many money claims, time runs from when the cause of action or right to sue accrues.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
A written and signed acknowledgment of liability made before expiry of limitation may have what effect under section 18 of the Limitation Act?
Correct
Section 18 provides that a written and signed acknowledgment of liability made before the original limitation period expires gives rise to a fresh period of limitation from the date it is signed.
Incorrect
Section 18 provides that a written and signed acknowledgment of liability made before the original limitation period expires gives rise to a fresh period of limitation from the date it is signed.
Unattempted
Section 18 provides that a written and signed acknowledgment of liability made before the original limitation period expires gives rise to a fresh period of limitation from the date it is signed.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
A part-payment of debt made before expiry of limitation may extend limitation when:
Correct
Section 19 addresses part-payment before expiry of the prescribed period and requires the statutory evidence of payment, including writing in the payer’s handwriting or signed by the payer, as applicable.
Incorrect
Section 19 addresses part-payment before expiry of the prescribed period and requires the statutory evidence of payment, including writing in the payer’s handwriting or signed by the payer, as applicable.
Unattempted
Section 19 addresses part-payment before expiry of the prescribed period and requires the statutory evidence of payment, including writing in the payer’s handwriting or signed by the payer, as applicable.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Under SARFAESI section 13(3A), the secured creditor should communicate reasons for non-acceptance of a borrower’s representation within:
Correct
Section 13(3A) requires the secured creditor to consider the representation or objection and communicate reasons for non-acceptance within 15 days of receipt.
Incorrect
Section 13(3A) requires the secured creditor to consider the representation or objection and communicate reasons for non-acceptance within 15 days of receipt.
Unattempted
Section 13(3A) requires the secured creditor to consider the representation or objection and communicate reasons for non-acceptance within 15 days of receipt.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
What is the general period under SARFAESI section 17 for an application to the DRT against a section 13(4) measure?
Correct
Section 17 generally prescribes 45 days from the date on which the measure under section 13(4) is taken.
Incorrect
Section 17 generally prescribes 45 days from the date on which the measure under section 13(4) is taken.
Unattempted
Section 17 generally prescribes 45 days from the date on which the measure under section 13(4) is taken.