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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Why might a lender apply a haircut to securities received as collateral?
Correct
A haircut means the collateral’s recognised value is set below its market value. The buffer helps protect the lender against price volatility, liquidation costs and potential delays in selling collateral.
Incorrect
A haircut means the collateral’s recognised value is set below its market value. The buffer helps protect the lender against price volatility, liquidation costs and potential delays in selling collateral.
Unattempted
A haircut means the collateral’s recognised value is set below its market value. The buffer helps protect the lender against price volatility, liquidation costs and potential delays in selling collateral.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
What is the purpose of variation margin in a collateralised derivatives arrangement?
Correct
Variation margin transfers or secures the current mark-to-market exposure under the arrangement. It helps control current credit exposure but depends on collateral terms, timing and counterparty performance.
Incorrect
Variation margin transfers or secures the current mark-to-market exposure under the arrangement. It helps control current credit exposure but depends on collateral terms, timing and counterparty performance.
Unattempted
Variation margin transfers or secures the current mark-to-market exposure under the arrangement. It helps control current credit exposure but depends on collateral terms, timing and counterparty performance.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
What does Value at Risk (VaR) estimate under a specified model and confidence level?
Correct
VaR estimates a loss quantile for a portfolio over a stated horizon and confidence level. It does not measure the severity of losses beyond that threshold and can fail under unusual market conditions.
Incorrect
VaR estimates a loss quantile for a portfolio over a stated horizon and confidence level. It does not measure the severity of losses beyond that threshold and can fail under unusual market conditions.
Unattempted
VaR estimates a loss quantile for a portfolio over a stated horizon and confidence level. It does not measure the severity of losses beyond that threshold and can fail under unusual market conditions.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Why do banks conduct stress tests in addition to routine risk measures?
Correct
Stress testing explores how portfolios or institutions might perform under adverse scenarios that may not be captured adequately by routine models. It informs risk limits, capital and contingency planning.
Incorrect
Stress testing explores how portfolios or institutions might perform under adverse scenarios that may not be captured adequately by routine models. It informs risk limits, capital and contingency planning.
Unattempted
Stress testing explores how portfolios or institutions might perform under adverse scenarios that may not be captured adequately by routine models. It informs risk limits, capital and contingency planning.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Which statement best describes the difference between a stop-loss instruction and a derivative hedge?
Correct
A stop-loss instruction aims to trigger a trade after a specified price condition. A derivative hedge creates an offsetting exposure intended to reduce risk, but can involve basis, liquidity and counterparty risks.
Incorrect
A stop-loss instruction aims to trigger a trade after a specified price condition. A derivative hedge creates an offsetting exposure intended to reduce risk, but can involve basis, liquidity and counterparty risks.
Unattempted
A stop-loss instruction aims to trigger a trade after a specified price condition. A derivative hedge creates an offsetting exposure intended to reduce risk, but can involve basis, liquidity and counterparty risks.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
A bank has more liabilities than assets repricing soon when rates rise. What risk may it face, depending on the repricing structure?
Correct
Repricing gaps compare the timing and sensitivity of assets and liabilities. If liabilities reprice upward faster than assets, funding costs may rise more quickly than asset income, potentially compressing net interest income.
Incorrect
Repricing gaps compare the timing and sensitivity of assets and liabilities. If liabilities reprice upward faster than assets, funding costs may rise more quickly than asset income, potentially compressing net interest income.
Unattempted
Repricing gaps compare the timing and sensitivity of assets and liabilities. If liabilities reprice upward faster than assets, funding costs may rise more quickly than asset income, potentially compressing net interest income.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Why is duration gap relevant to a bank?
Correct
Duration gap analysis compares the interest-rate sensitivity of assets and liabilities. It can help estimate the effect of rate changes on economic value, although assumptions and behavioural characteristics also matter.
Incorrect
Duration gap analysis compares the interest-rate sensitivity of assets and liabilities. It can help estimate the effect of rate changes on economic value, although assumptions and behavioural characteristics also matter.
Unattempted
Duration gap analysis compares the interest-rate sensitivity of assets and liabilities. It can help estimate the effect of rate changes on economic value, although assumptions and behavioural characteristics also matter.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Which is an example of operational risk in treasury dealing?
Correct
Operational risk can arise from failed processes, people, systems or external events. Incorrect trade capture is operational, whereas yield-driven price changes are market risk and borrower default is credit risk.
Incorrect
Operational risk can arise from failed processes, people, systems or external events. Incorrect trade capture is operational, whereas yield-driven price changes are market risk and borrower default is credit risk.
Unattempted
Operational risk can arise from failed processes, people, systems or external events. Incorrect trade capture is operational, whereas yield-driven price changes are market risk and borrower default is credit risk.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
What is a settlement fail?
Correct
A settlement fail occurs when the required securities or cash are not delivered according to settlement obligations. It can create costs, liquidity strain and counterparty exposure.
Incorrect
A settlement fail occurs when the required securities or cash are not delivered according to settlement obligations. It can create costs, liquidity strain and counterparty exposure.
Unattempted
A settlement fail occurs when the required securities or cash are not delivered according to settlement obligations. It can create costs, liquidity strain and counterparty exposure.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Why does a bank maintain a liquidity buffer?
Correct
A liquidity buffer consists of assets or resources available to meet unexpected outflows and stressed funding needs. It supports resilience but does not eliminate every liquidity risk.
Incorrect
A liquidity buffer consists of assets or resources available to meet unexpected outflows and stressed funding needs. It supports resilience but does not eliminate every liquidity risk.
Unattempted
A liquidity buffer consists of assets or resources available to meet unexpected outflows and stressed funding needs. It supports resilience but does not eliminate every liquidity risk.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
What does the drawee’s acceptance of a bill of exchange generally signify?
Correct
Acceptance generally signifies the drawee’s undertaking to pay the bill at maturity according to its terms. It does not by itself mean that payment has already been made or that the bill is government-guaranteed.
Incorrect
Acceptance generally signifies the drawee’s undertaking to pay the bill at maturity according to its terms. It does not by itself mean that payment has already been made or that the bill is government-guaranteed.
Unattempted
Acceptance generally signifies the drawee’s undertaking to pay the bill at maturity according to its terms. It does not by itself mean that payment has already been made or that the bill is government-guaranteed.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
What is a usance bill?
Correct
A usance bill provides a credit period and becomes payable at a specified future date or after a defined tenor. It differs from a sight bill, which is payable on presentation subject to its terms.
Incorrect
A usance bill provides a credit period and becomes payable at a specified future date or after a defined tenor. It differs from a sight bill, which is payable on presentation subject to its terms.
Unattempted
A usance bill provides a credit period and becomes payable at a specified future date or after a defined tenor. It differs from a sight bill, which is payable on presentation subject to its terms.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
When is a sight bill generally payable?
Correct
A sight bill is payable on presentation according to the instrument’s terms and applicable law. It is distinct from a usance bill that provides a future payment period.
Incorrect
A sight bill is payable on presentation according to the instrument’s terms and applicable law. It is distinct from a usance bill that provides a future payment period.
Unattempted
A sight bill is payable on presentation according to the instrument’s terms and applicable law. It is distinct from a usance bill that provides a future payment period.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
What does supplier trade credit mean?
Correct
Trade credit allows a buyer to receive goods or services and pay later under agreed terms. It supports working capital but exposes the supplier to delayed payment or buyer default.
Incorrect
Trade credit allows a buyer to receive goods or services and pay later under agreed terms. It supports working capital but exposes the supplier to delayed payment or buyer default.
Unattempted
Trade credit allows a buyer to receive goods or services and pay later under agreed terms. It supports working capital but exposes the supplier to delayed payment or buyer default.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
What does assignment of receivables generally involve?
Correct
An assignment transfers specified receivable rights, subject to the governing law, contract terms and any notice or consent requirements. It does not automatically transfer ownership of the seller’s entire business.
Incorrect
An assignment transfers specified receivable rights, subject to the governing law, contract terms and any notice or consent requirements. It does not automatically transfer ownership of the seller’s entire business.
Unattempted
An assignment transfers specified receivable rights, subject to the governing law, contract terms and any notice or consent requirements. It does not automatically transfer ownership of the seller’s entire business.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
Why may a financier seek warranties about the validity of invoices in a receivables-finance deal?
Correct
Invoice validity warranties and verification help reduce fraud, duplication and dispute risks. They do not guarantee buyer solvency or remove all legal and operational risk.
Incorrect
Invoice validity warranties and verification help reduce fraud, duplication and dispute risks. They do not guarantee buyer solvency or remove all legal and operational risk.
Unattempted
Invoice validity warranties and verification help reduce fraud, duplication and dispute risks. They do not guarantee buyer solvency or remove all legal and operational risk.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
What does export credit insurance generally seek to protect an exporter against?
Correct
Export credit insurance can cover specified commercial and political non-payment risks. Coverage limits, exclusions, waiting periods and claim conditions apply, and currency risk may require a separate hedge.
Incorrect
Export credit insurance can cover specified commercial and political non-payment risks. Coverage limits, exclusions, waiting periods and claim conditions apply, and currency risk may require a separate hedge.
Unattempted
Export credit insurance can cover specified commercial and political non-payment risks. Coverage limits, exclusions, waiting periods and claim conditions apply, and currency risk may require a separate hedge.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
In documentary collection, what does the collecting bank generally do?
Correct
In documentary collection, banks handle documents and present them for payment or acceptance according to instructions. Unlike a letter of credit, collection does not ordinarily provide the same independent payment undertaking by a bank.
Incorrect
In documentary collection, banks handle documents and present them for payment or acceptance according to instructions. Unlike a letter of credit, collection does not ordinarily provide the same independent payment undertaking by a bank.
Unattempted
In documentary collection, banks handle documents and present them for payment or acceptance according to instructions. Unlike a letter of credit, collection does not ordinarily provide the same independent payment undertaking by a bank.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
What is the key function of a documentary letter of credit when its terms are met?
Correct
A documentary credit provides a bank undertaking to honour a presentation that complies with the credit terms and applicable rules. Banks deal with documents, not the physical goods themselves.
Incorrect
A documentary credit provides a bank undertaking to honour a presentation that complies with the credit terms and applicable rules. Banks deal with documents, not the physical goods themselves.
Unattempted
A documentary credit provides a bank undertaking to honour a presentation that complies with the credit terms and applicable rules. Banks deal with documents, not the physical goods themselves.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
What does a forfaiter typically pay the exporter for?
Correct
A forfaiter purchases eligible export receivables at a discounted price, often on a without-recourse basis subject to agreed terms. The exporter receives earlier cash while the forfaiter assumes specified payment risks.
Incorrect
A forfaiter purchases eligible export receivables at a discounted price, often on a without-recourse basis subject to agreed terms. The exporter receives earlier cash while the forfaiter assumes specified payment risks.
Unattempted
A forfaiter purchases eligible export receivables at a discounted price, often on a without-recourse basis subject to agreed terms. The exporter receives earlier cash while the forfaiter assumes specified payment risks.