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- Questions: 100
- Time: 120 min
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
Which feature best distinguishes indicative planning from command planning?
Correct
Indicative planning guides and coordinates decisions through policy signals rather than directing every production decision.
Incorrect
Indicative planning guides and coordinates decisions through policy signals rather than directing every production decision.
Unattempted
Indicative planning guides and coordinates decisions through policy signals rather than directing every production decision.
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
A rise in nominal GDP with unchanged real GDP most directly indicates:
Correct
Nominal GDP values output at current prices; if real GDP is unchanged, the difference reflects price changes.
Incorrect
Nominal GDP values output at current prices; if real GDP is unchanged, the difference reflects price changes.
Unattempted
Nominal GDP values output at current prices; if real GDP is unchanged, the difference reflects price changes.
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
Which activity belongs most clearly to the quaternary sector?
Correct
The quaternary sector is associated with knowledge-intensive activities such as information, research and analysis.
Incorrect
The quaternary sector is associated with knowledge-intensive activities such as information, research and analysis.
Unattempted
The quaternary sector is associated with knowledge-intensive activities such as information, research and analysis.
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Question 4 of 100
4. Question
A minimum support price (MSP) is primarily intended to:
Correct
MSP is announced for specified crops as a price-support mechanism; it does not guarantee procurement of every quantity everywhere.
Incorrect
MSP is announced for specified crops as a price-support mechanism; it does not guarantee procurement of every quantity everywhere.
Unattempted
MSP is announced for specified crops as a price-support mechanism; it does not guarantee procurement of every quantity everywhere.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
Under India’s revised MSME classification effective from 1 April 2025, a micro enterprise must satisfy which combined investment and turnover limits?
Correct
The revised micro-enterprise limits are investment not exceeding ₹2.5 crore and turnover not exceeding ₹10 crore; both criteria apply.
Incorrect
The revised micro-enterprise limits are investment not exceeding ₹2.5 crore and turnover not exceeding ₹10 crore; both criteria apply.
Unattempted
The revised micro-enterprise limits are investment not exceeding ₹2.5 crore and turnover not exceeding ₹10 crore; both criteria apply.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
Priority sector lending targets are designed mainly to:
Correct
PSL targets promote credit access for sectors such as agriculture, MSMEs and weaker sections under RBI directions.
Incorrect
PSL targets promote credit access for sectors such as agriculture, MSMEs and weaker sections under RBI directions.
Unattempted
PSL targets promote credit access for sectors such as agriculture, MSMEs and weaker sections under RBI directions.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
Why is investment in reliable electricity often treated as a prerequisite for industrial development?
Correct
Reliable power reduces outages and supports the operation of factories, services and digital infrastructure.
Incorrect
Reliable power reduces outages and supports the operation of factories, services and digital infrastructure.
Unattempted
Reliable power reduces outages and supports the operation of factories, services and digital infrastructure.
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
Which is the clearest example of social infrastructure?
Correct
Health and education facilities are social infrastructure because they build human capabilities and welfare.
Incorrect
Health and education facilities are social infrastructure because they build human capabilities and welfare.
Unattempted
Health and education facilities are social infrastructure because they build human capabilities and welfare.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
A likely benefit of participation in international trade is:
Correct
Trade can expand markets and input choices, although its gains and adjustment costs may be unevenly distributed.
Incorrect
Trade can expand markets and input choices, although its gains and adjustment costs may be unevenly distributed.
Unattempted
Trade can expand markets and input choices, although its gains and adjustment costs may be unevenly distributed.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
A tariff imposed on an imported product is best described as:
Correct
A tariff is a customs duty imposed on imported goods.
Incorrect
A tariff is a customs duty imposed on imported goods.
Unattempted
A tariff is a customs duty imposed on imported goods.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
Which statement best describes foreign direct investment (FDI)?
Correct
FDI generally entails a lasting interest and influence in an enterprise; portfolio investment is usually more passive.
Incorrect
FDI generally entails a lasting interest and influence in an enterprise; portfolio investment is usually more passive.
Unattempted
FDI generally entails a lasting interest and influence in an enterprise; portfolio investment is usually more passive.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
Which indicator is more directly associated with economic development than with economic growth alone?
Correct
Development includes qualitative improvements in welfare and capabilities, not just an increase in measured output.
Incorrect
Development includes qualitative improvements in welfare and capabilities, not just an increase in measured output.
Unattempted
Development includes qualitative improvements in welfare and capabilities, not just an increase in measured output.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
Which institution is primarily associated with providing balance-of-payments support and promoting international monetary cooperation?
Correct
The IMF focuses on monetary cooperation, exchange stability and balance-of-payments assistance.
Incorrect
The IMF focuses on monetary cooperation, exchange stability and balance-of-payments assistance.
Unattempted
The IMF focuses on monetary cooperation, exchange stability and balance-of-payments assistance.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
The World Bank Group’s traditional development role is most closely associated with:
Correct
World Bank institutions provide development finance, knowledge and support for poverty reduction.
Incorrect
World Bank institutions provide development finance, knowledge and support for poverty reduction.
Unattempted
World Bank institutions provide development finance, knowledge and support for poverty reduction.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
The WTO’s core function is to:
Correct
The WTO administers multilateral trade agreements and provides a forum for negotiations and dispute settlement.
Incorrect
The WTO administers multilateral trade agreements and provides a forum for negotiations and dispute settlement.
Unattempted
The WTO administers multilateral trade agreements and provides a forum for negotiations and dispute settlement.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
The principle of intergenerational equity means that development should:
Correct
Intergenerational equity requires considering future generations’ needs and the long-term effects of present choices.
Incorrect
Intergenerational equity requires considering future generations’ needs and the long-term effects of present choices.
Unattempted
Intergenerational equity requires considering future generations’ needs and the long-term effects of present choices.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
Which Sustainable Development Goal specifically focuses on affordable and clean energy?
Correct
SDG 7 is Affordable and Clean Energy.
Incorrect
SDG 7 is Affordable and Clean Energy.
Unattempted
SDG 7 is Affordable and Clean Energy.
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
A carbon tax is an example of which policy approach?
Correct
A carbon tax internalises some of the social cost of emissions by making emitting activities more expensive.
Incorrect
A carbon tax internalises some of the social cost of emissions by making emitting activities more expensive.
Unattempted
A carbon tax internalises some of the social cost of emissions by making emitting activities more expensive.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
Which outcome would indicate that output growth has weak employment intensity?
Correct
Jobless growth describes output expansion that creates relatively few additional jobs.
Incorrect
Jobless growth describes output expansion that creates relatively few additional jobs.
Unattempted
Jobless growth describes output expansion that creates relatively few additional jobs.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
A multidimensional poverty measure differs from an income-only measure because it may include:
Correct
Multidimensional measures capture non-income deprivations as well as, or instead of, income alone.
Incorrect
Multidimensional measures capture non-income deprivations as well as, or instead of, income alone.
Unattempted
Multidimensional measures capture non-income deprivations as well as, or instead of, income alone.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
Rural-to-urban migration can increase pressure on urban services when:
Correct
Rapid population growth can strain housing and public services if urban infrastructure and planning lag behind.
Incorrect
Rapid population growth can strain housing and public services if urban infrastructure and planning lag behind.
Unattempted
Rapid population growth can strain housing and public services if urban infrastructure and planning lag behind.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
A central objective of liberalisation reforms is to:
Correct
Liberalisation reduces selected restrictions and increases scope for market participation and competition.
Incorrect
Liberalisation reduces selected restrictions and increases scope for market participation and competition.
Unattempted
Liberalisation reduces selected restrictions and increases scope for market participation and competition.
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
An export incentive, where permitted under applicable rules, is generally intended to:
Correct
Export-support measures seek to improve competitiveness but must comply with applicable domestic and international rules.
Incorrect
Export-support measures seek to improve competitiveness but must comply with applicable domestic and international rules.
Unattempted
Export-support measures seek to improve competitiveness but must comply with applicable domestic and international rules.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
Under India’s Companies Act framework, CSR obligations are triggered when a company meets specified thresholds relating to:
Correct
Section 135 applies to companies meeting any of the statutory net-worth, turnover or net-profit thresholds.
Incorrect
Section 135 applies to companies meeting any of the statutory net-worth, turnover or net-profit thresholds.
Unattempted
Section 135 applies to companies meeting any of the statutory net-worth, turnover or net-profit thresholds.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
Which example best illustrates formalisation of an economy?
Correct
Formalisation involves greater registration, documentation, compliance and integration with formal systems.
Incorrect
Formalisation involves greater registration, documentation, compliance and integration with formal systems.
Unattempted
Formalisation involves greater registration, documentation, compliance and integration with formal systems.
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
Holding other factors constant, a fall in the price of a normal good generally causes:
Correct
A price change causes movement along the demand curve; other factors can shift the curve.
Incorrect
A price change causes movement along the demand curve; other factors can shift the curve.
Unattempted
A price change causes movement along the demand curve; other factors can shift the curve.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
If firms can produce more units at the same cost after adopting a new process, which market-side effect is most likely?
Correct
Lower production costs or higher productivity typically increase supply at each price.
Incorrect
Lower production costs or higher productivity typically increase supply at each price.
Unattempted
Lower production costs or higher productivity typically increase supply at each price.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
If the price elasticity of demand in absolute value is greater than one, demand is:
Correct
Elastic demand means quantity demanded responds proportionately more than price in percentage terms.
Incorrect
Elastic demand means quantity demanded responds proportionately more than price in percentage terms.
Unattempted
Elastic demand means quantity demanded responds proportionately more than price in percentage terms.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
If demand increases while supply remains unchanged, the usual equilibrium outcome is:
Correct
An outward shift in demand raises both equilibrium price and quantity, other things equal.
Incorrect
An outward shift in demand raises both equilibrium price and quantity, other things equal.
Unattempted
An outward shift in demand raises both equilibrium price and quantity, other things equal.
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
The opportunity cost of using a bank-owned building for its own branch is best represented by:
Correct
Opportunity cost is the value of the next-best alternative sacrificed.
Incorrect
Opportunity cost is the value of the next-best alternative sacrificed.
Unattempted
Opportunity cost is the value of the next-best alternative sacrificed.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
A sustained increase in the general price level reduces the purchasing power of money because:
Correct
Inflation means the general price level rises, so a unit of money buys less on average.
Incorrect
Inflation means the general price level rises, so a unit of money buys less on average.
Unattempted
Inflation means the general price level rises, so a unit of money buys less on average.
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
Demand-pull inflation is most likely when:
Correct
Demand-pull inflation results from excessive aggregate demand relative to productive capacity.
Incorrect
Demand-pull inflation results from excessive aggregate demand relative to productive capacity.
Unattempted
Demand-pull inflation results from excessive aggregate demand relative to productive capacity.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
A sharp rise in imported crude oil prices can create cost-push inflation by:
Correct
Oil is an important input; higher prices can raise costs for transport, energy and production.
Incorrect
Oil is an important input; higher prices can raise costs for transport, energy and production.
Unattempted
Oil is an important input; higher prices can raise costs for transport, energy and production.
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
When the RBI raises the policy repo rate, the immediate intended monetary-policy signal is generally to:
Correct
A repo-rate increase generally tightens financial conditions and can dampen demand and inflation over time.
Incorrect
A repo-rate increase generally tightens financial conditions and can dampen demand and inflation over time.
Unattempted
A repo-rate increase generally tightens financial conditions and can dampen demand and inflation over time.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
An open market sale of government securities by the RBI generally:
Correct
When the RBI sells securities, buyers pay funds to the RBI, absorbing liquidity from the system.
Incorrect
When the RBI sells securities, buyers pay funds to the RBI, absorbing liquidity from the system.
Unattempted
When the RBI sells securities, buyers pay funds to the RBI, absorbing liquidity from the system.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
If the cash reserve ratio (CRR) is increased, banks generally must:
Correct
CRR is the specified share of NDTL maintained as cash balances with the RBI.
Incorrect
CRR is the specified share of NDTL maintained as cash balances with the RBI.
Unattempted
CRR is the specified share of NDTL maintained as cash balances with the RBI.
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
A government increases public expenditure without an equal increase in revenue. Ceteris paribus, this tends to:
Correct
Higher expenditure without matching revenue generally widens the fiscal deficit and can raise aggregate demand.
Incorrect
Higher expenditure without matching revenue generally widens the fiscal deficit and can raise aggregate demand.
Unattempted
Higher expenditure without matching revenue generally widens the fiscal deficit and can raise aggregate demand.
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
The principal purpose of a fiscal responsibility framework is to promote:
Correct
Fiscal responsibility frameworks aim to improve fiscal discipline and transparency and support debt sustainability.
Incorrect
Fiscal responsibility frameworks aim to improve fiscal discipline and transparency and support debt sustainability.
Unattempted
Fiscal responsibility frameworks aim to improve fiscal discipline and transparency and support debt sustainability.
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
Which transaction is normally excluded from current-year GDP because it is not current production?
Correct
Resale of a used good is not current production; dealer services connected with resale may count.
Incorrect
Resale of a used good is not current production; dealer services connected with resale may count.
Unattempted
Resale of a used good is not current production; dealer services connected with resale may count.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
Real GDP is useful for comparing output over time because it:
Correct
Real GDP removes the effect of price changes to better measure changes in production volume.
Incorrect
Real GDP removes the effect of price changes to better measure changes in production volume.
Unattempted
Real GDP removes the effect of price changes to better measure changes in production volume.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
The GDP deflator broadly compares:
Correct
The GDP deflator is nominal GDP divided by real GDP, multiplied by 100 under the chosen convention.
Incorrect
The GDP deflator is nominal GDP divided by real GDP, multiplied by 100 under the chosen convention.
Unattempted
The GDP deflator is nominal GDP divided by real GDP, multiplied by 100 under the chosen convention.
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
Transfer payments such as an old-age pension are excluded from GDP as government output because:
Correct
Transfer payments redistribute income but do not directly represent payment for newly produced output.
Incorrect
Transfer payments redistribute income but do not directly represent payment for newly produced output.
Unattempted
Transfer payments redistribute income but do not directly represent payment for newly produced output.
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
During the contraction phase of a business cycle, an economy commonly experiences:
Correct
Contraction is associated with declining or weakening economic activity and often weaker employment.
Incorrect
Contraction is associated with declining or weakening economic activity and often weaker employment.
Unattempted
Contraction is associated with declining or weakening economic activity and often weaker employment.
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
In Keynes’ liquidity preference theory, the rate of interest is determined by the interaction of:
Correct
Keynes explained interest as the price for parting with liquidity, determined by money supply and liquidity preference.
Incorrect
Keynes explained interest as the price for parting with liquidity, determined by money supply and liquidity preference.
Unattempted
Keynes explained interest as the price for parting with liquidity, determined by money supply and liquidity preference.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
In the standard IS-LM framework, the IS curve represents combinations of income and interest rates at which:
Correct
The IS curve represents goods-market equilibrium, while the LM curve represents money-market equilibrium.
Incorrect
The IS curve represents goods-market equilibrium, while the LM curve represents money-market equilibrium.
Unattempted
The IS curve represents goods-market equilibrium, while the LM curve represents money-market equilibrium.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
A bank’s creation of deposits through lending is constrained by factors including capital, liquidity, credit demand and:
Correct
Deposit creation is not mechanical; lending is shaped by regulation, capital, liquidity, demand and risk appetite.
Incorrect
Deposit creation is not mechanical; lending is shaped by regulation, capital, liquidity, demand and risk appetite.
Unattempted
Deposit creation is not mechanical; lending is shaped by regulation, capital, liquidity, demand and risk appetite.
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
All else equal, a depreciation of the domestic currency makes imported goods priced in foreign currency:
Correct
Depreciation means more domestic currency is needed to buy a unit of foreign currency, raising import costs.
Incorrect
Depreciation means more domestic currency is needed to buy a unit of foreign currency, raising import costs.
Unattempted
Depreciation means more domestic currency is needed to buy a unit of foreign currency, raising import costs.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
A current-account deficit means that, over the period, a country’s current-account payments exceed its:
Correct
A current-account deficit occurs when current-account debits exceed credits.
Incorrect
A current-account deficit occurs when current-account debits exceed credits.
Unattempted
A current-account deficit occurs when current-account debits exceed credits.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
The revenue deficit is the excess of:
Correct
Revenue deficit equals revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts.
Incorrect
Revenue deficit equals revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts.
Unattempted
Revenue deficit equals revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
Which statement best captures the role of a financial system?
Correct
A financial system connects savers and users of funds through institutions, markets, instruments and infrastructure.
Incorrect
A financial system connects savers and users of funds through institutions, markets, instruments and infrastructure.
Unattempted
A financial system connects savers and users of funds through institutions, markets, instruments and infrastructure.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
A bank is included in the Second Schedule to the RBI Act, 1934, subject to statutory conditions. Such a bank is called:
Correct
Scheduled banks are those included in the Second Schedule to the RBI Act, subject to relevant statutory requirements.
Incorrect
Scheduled banks are those included in the Second Schedule to the RBI Act, subject to relevant statutory requirements.
Unattempted
Scheduled banks are those included in the Second Schedule to the RBI Act, subject to relevant statutory requirements.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
The core policy purpose of small finance banks is to:
Correct
Small finance banks focus on financial inclusion and serving small businesses, small farmers and underserved customers.
Incorrect
Small finance banks focus on financial inclusion and serving small businesses, small farmers and underserved customers.
Unattempted
Small finance banks focus on financial inclusion and serving small businesses, small farmers and underserved customers.
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
Which activity is generally not permitted for payments banks under the established RBI framework?
Correct
Payments banks can accept eligible deposits and provide payment services but are not permitted to undertake lending.
Incorrect
Payments banks can accept eligible deposits and provide payment services but are not permitted to undertake lending.
Unattempted
Payments banks can accept eligible deposits and provide payment services but are not permitted to undertake lending.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
Regional Rural Banks were established primarily to:
Correct
RRBs were created to improve institutional credit access in rural areas.
Incorrect
RRBs were created to improve institutional credit access in rural areas.
Unattempted
RRBs were created to improve institutional credit access in rural areas.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
A distinguishing feature of a cooperative bank is its:
Correct
Cooperative banks operate under a cooperative structure, with members playing a central ownership role.
Incorrect
Cooperative banks operate under a cooperative structure, with members playing a central ownership role.
Unattempted
Cooperative banks operate under a cooperative structure, with members playing a central ownership role.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
Compared with a bank, an NBFC generally cannot:
Correct
NBFCs are not banks and generally cannot accept demand deposits; their permitted activities depend on their category and regulation.
Incorrect
NBFCs are not banks and generally cannot accept demand deposits; their permitted activities depend on their category and regulation.
Unattempted
NBFCs are not banks and generally cannot accept demand deposits; their permitted activities depend on their category and regulation.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
Which law provides the principal statutory framework for regulation of banking companies in India?
Correct
The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is a central statute governing banking companies, subject to its scope and amendments.
Incorrect
The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is a central statute governing banking companies, subject to its scope and amendments.
Unattempted
The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is a central statute governing banking companies, subject to its scope and amendments.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
The Reserve Bank of India was established under:
Correct
The RBI Act, 1934 provides the statutory basis for the Reserve Bank of India.
Incorrect
The RBI Act, 1934 provides the statutory basis for the Reserve Bank of India.
Unattempted
The RBI Act, 1934 provides the statutory basis for the Reserve Bank of India.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
Which function is most directly associated with the RBI as India’s central bank?
Correct
The RBI conducts monetary policy and manages currency issuance within its statutory responsibilities.
Incorrect
The RBI conducts monetary policy and manages currency issuance within its statutory responsibilities.
Unattempted
The RBI conducts monetary policy and manages currency issuance within its statutory responsibilities.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
A major theme of the 1991 Narasimham Committee reforms was:
Correct
The committee advocated reforms including prudential norms, stronger supervision, competition and operational efficiency.
Incorrect
The committee advocated reforms including prudential norms, stronger supervision, competition and operational efficiency.
Unattempted
The committee advocated reforms including prudential norms, stronger supervision, competition and operational efficiency.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
SIDBI’s principal developmental focus is on:
Correct
SIDBI is a principal financial institution for promotion, financing and development of the MSME sector.
Incorrect
SIDBI is a principal financial institution for promotion, financing and development of the MSME sector.
Unattempted
SIDBI is a principal financial institution for promotion, financing and development of the MSME sector.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
NABARD’s central developmental role is associated with:
Correct
NABARD supports agriculture and rural development through refinance, development and institutional support.
Incorrect
NABARD supports agriculture and rural development through refinance, development and institutional support.
Unattempted
NABARD supports agriculture and rural development through refinance, development and institutional support.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
The Export-Import Bank of India primarily supports:
Correct
EXIM Bank supports India’s international trade through finance and related services.
Incorrect
EXIM Bank supports India’s international trade through finance and related services.
Unattempted
EXIM Bank supports India’s international trade through finance and related services.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
Which institution was established to promote housing finance and strengthen the housing finance system in India?
Correct
NHB was established to promote housing finance and related institutional development.
Incorrect
NHB was established to promote housing finance and related institutional development.
Unattempted
NHB was established to promote housing finance and related institutional development.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
NaBFID was established primarily to support financing of:
Correct
NaBFID is a development financial institution focused on long-term infrastructure financing.
Incorrect
NaBFID is a development financial institution focused on long-term infrastructure financing.
Unattempted
NaBFID is a development financial institution focused on long-term infrastructure financing.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
In the SHG-Bank Linkage model, a self-help group typically:
Correct
The SHG-Bank Linkage model connects savings-based groups with formal bank credit and financial services.
Incorrect
The SHG-Bank Linkage model connects savings-based groups with formal bank credit and financial services.
Unattempted
The SHG-Bank Linkage model connects savings-based groups with formal bank credit and financial services.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
The joint liability feature in a JLG primarily means that:
Correct
Joint liability provides a group-based repayment incentive and can help lenders serve borrowers with limited collateral.
Incorrect
Joint liability provides a group-based repayment incentive and can help lenders serve borrowers with limited collateral.
Unattempted
Joint liability provides a group-based repayment incentive and can help lenders serve borrowers with limited collateral.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
The RBI’s scale-based regulatory framework for NBFCs categorises entities mainly with a view to:
Correct
Scale-based regulation calibrates requirements to the risk and systemic significance of NBFCs.
Incorrect
Scale-based regulation calibrates requirements to the risk and systemic significance of NBFCs.
Unattempted
Scale-based regulation calibrates requirements to the risk and systemic significance of NBFCs.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
The principal regulator of the insurance sector in India is:
Correct
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India regulates and develops the insurance sector.
Incorrect
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India regulates and develops the insurance sector.
Unattempted
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India regulates and develops the insurance sector.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
The principal regulator of India’s securities market is:
Correct
SEBI regulates the securities market and protects investors under its statutory mandate.
Incorrect
SEBI regulates the securities market and protects investors under its statutory mandate.
Unattempted
SEBI regulates the securities market and protects investors under its statutory mandate.
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
The regulator primarily associated with the National Pension System is:
Correct
PFRDA regulates and develops the pension sector, including the NPS framework.
Incorrect
PFRDA regulates and develops the pension sector, including the NPS framework.
Unattempted
PFRDA regulates and develops the pension sector, including the NPS framework.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
DICGC deposit insurance generally protects eligible deposits in an insured bank up to what limit per depositor per bank in the same right and capacity?
Correct
The general DICGC insurance limit is ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank, including principal and interest, subject to rules.
Incorrect
The general DICGC insurance limit is ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank, including principal and interest, subject to rules.
Unattempted
The general DICGC insurance limit is ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank, including principal and interest, subject to rules.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
A business correspondent model helps financial inclusion mainly by:
Correct
Business correspondents extend access to permitted banking services, particularly in underserved locations.
Incorrect
Business correspondents extend access to permitted banking services, particularly in underserved locations.
Unattempted
Business correspondents extend access to permitted banking services, particularly in underserved locations.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
A company making a fresh public issue of shares to raise new capital is participating in which market?
Correct
The primary market facilitates issuance of new securities and raises funds for issuers.
Incorrect
The primary market facilitates issuance of new securities and raises funds for issuers.
Unattempted
The primary market facilitates issuance of new securities and raises funds for issuers.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
The secondary market mainly enables investors to:
Correct
Secondary markets provide liquidity by allowing existing securities to be bought and sold.
Incorrect
Secondary markets provide liquidity by allowing existing securities to be bought and sold.
Unattempted
Secondary markets provide liquidity by allowing existing securities to be bought and sold.
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
Which instrument is a short-term money-market instrument issued by the Government of India at a discount and redeemed at face value?
Correct
Treasury bills are short-term government securities commonly issued at a discount and redeemed at face value.
Incorrect
Treasury bills are short-term government securities commonly issued at a discount and redeemed at face value.
Unattempted
Treasury bills are short-term government securities commonly issued at a discount and redeemed at face value.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
Commercial paper is generally:
Correct
Commercial paper is an unsecured short-term instrument subject to applicable eligibility and regulatory conditions.
Incorrect
Commercial paper is an unsecured short-term instrument subject to applicable eligibility and regulatory conditions.
Unattempted
Commercial paper is an unsecured short-term instrument subject to applicable eligibility and regulatory conditions.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
A certificate of deposit is best described as:
Correct
CDs are negotiable money-market instruments representing deposits and are issued under the applicable framework.
Incorrect
CDs are negotiable money-market instruments representing deposits and are issued under the applicable framework.
Unattempted
CDs are negotiable money-market instruments representing deposits and are issued under the applicable framework.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
A government security’s market price generally falls when its yield rises, other things equal, because:
Correct
Bond prices and yields move inversely for a given stream of fixed cash flows.
Incorrect
Bond prices and yields move inversely for a given stream of fixed cash flows.
Unattempted
Bond prices and yields move inversely for a given stream of fixed cash flows.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
The net asset value (NAV) per unit of an open-ended mutual fund is broadly calculated as:
Correct
NAV per unit equals the net assets of the scheme divided by units outstanding, subject to applicable valuation rules.
Incorrect
NAV per unit equals the net assets of the scheme divided by units outstanding, subject to applicable valuation rules.
Unattempted
NAV per unit equals the net assets of the scheme divided by units outstanding, subject to applicable valuation rules.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
An investor who wants to buy or sell fund units through an exchange trading screen during market hours would most directly use which product?
Correct
ETF units trade on exchanges during market hours and may trade at prices that differ slightly from NAV.
Incorrect
ETF units trade on exchanges during market hours and may trade at prices that differ slightly from NAV.
Unattempted
ETF units trade on exchanges during market hours and may trade at prices that differ slightly from NAV.
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
The principle of utmost good faith in insurance requires parties, especially the proposer, to:
Correct
Insurance relies on disclosure of material facts that affect underwriting and risk assessment.
Incorrect
Insurance relies on disclosure of material facts that affect underwriting and risk assessment.
Unattempted
Insurance relies on disclosure of material facts that affect underwriting and risk assessment.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
The principle of indemnity in general insurance aims to:
Correct
Indemnity seeks to compensate the actual covered loss, rather than create a profit from insurance.
Incorrect
Indemnity seeks to compensate the actual covered loss, rather than create a profit from insurance.
Unattempted
Indemnity seeks to compensate the actual covered loss, rather than create a profit from insurance.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
For a person seeking pure life cover for a specified period without an investment component, which product is most appropriate?
Correct
Term insurance provides life cover for a specified period, subject to policy terms.
Incorrect
Term insurance provides life cover for a specified period, subject to policy terms.
Unattempted
Term insurance provides life cover for a specified period, subject to policy terms.
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
Reinsurance is an arrangement under which:
Correct
Reinsurance allows an insurer to cede part of its accepted risk to another insurer or reinsurer.
Incorrect
Reinsurance allows an insurer to cede part of its accepted risk to another insurer or reinsurer.
Unattempted
Reinsurance allows an insurer to cede part of its accepted risk to another insurer or reinsurer.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
An insurance repository enables policyholders, under the applicable framework, to:
Correct
Insurance repositories facilitate electronic holding and servicing of insurance policies.
Incorrect
Insurance repositories facilitate electronic holding and servicing of insurance policies.
Unattempted
Insurance repositories facilitate electronic holding and servicing of insurance policies.
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
A defined-benefit pension arrangement promises benefits that are determined mainly by:
Correct
In a defined-benefit arrangement, the benefit is set by a formula; investment risk is not borne solely by the member in the same way as a defined-contribution plan.
Incorrect
In a defined-benefit arrangement, the benefit is set by a formula; investment risk is not borne solely by the member in the same way as a defined-contribution plan.
Unattempted
In a defined-benefit arrangement, the benefit is set by a formula; investment risk is not borne solely by the member in the same way as a defined-contribution plan.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
In a defined-contribution pension arrangement, the eventual benefit depends mainly on:
Correct
The accumulated contributions and investment returns determine the retirement corpus and benefits.
Incorrect
The accumulated contributions and investment returns determine the retirement corpus and benefits.
Unattempted
The accumulated contributions and investment returns determine the retirement corpus and benefits.
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
A credit rating primarily expresses an opinion about:
Correct
Credit ratings assess credit risk; they are opinions and are not guarantees against default.
Incorrect
Credit ratings assess credit risk; they are opinions and are not guarantees against default.
Unattempted
Credit ratings assess credit risk; they are opinions and are not guarantees against default.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
A futures contract differs from a forward contract in that futures are typically:
Correct
Exchange-traded futures are standardised and cleared, while forwards are commonly bilateral and customised.
Incorrect
Exchange-traded futures are standardised and cleared, while forwards are commonly bilateral and customised.
Unattempted
Exchange-traded futures are standardised and cleared, while forwards are commonly bilateral and customised.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
The buyer of a call option has the right, but not the obligation, to:
Correct
A call option gives its buyer the right to buy the underlying at the strike price under the contract terms.
Incorrect
A call option gives its buyer the right to buy the underlying at the strike price under the contract terms.
Unattempted
A call option gives its buyer the right to buy the underlying at the strike price under the contract terms.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
A bank quotes USD/INR at 83.20. In this quote, USD is the:
Correct
USD/INR states the number of rupees for one US dollar: USD is base and INR is quote currency.
Incorrect
USD/INR states the number of rupees for one US dollar: USD is base and INR is quote currency.
Unattempted
USD/INR states the number of rupees for one US dollar: USD is base and INR is quote currency.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
A company that must pay US dollars in three months and fears the dollar may appreciate can reduce uncertainty by:
Correct
A forward purchase of dollars can lock in an exchange rate, subject to eligibility, documentation and applicable rules.
Incorrect
A forward purchase of dollars can lock in an exchange rate, subject to eligibility, documentation and applicable rules.
Unattempted
A forward purchase of dollars can lock in an exchange rate, subject to eligibility, documentation and applicable rules.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
The purpose of a basic no-frills or basic savings bank deposit account is primarily to:
Correct
Basic savings accounts aim to broaden access to essential banking services; exact facilities are governed by current rules.
Incorrect
Basic savings accounts aim to broaden access to essential banking services; exact facilities are governed by current rules.
Unattempted
Basic savings accounts aim to broaden access to essential banking services; exact facilities are governed by current rules.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
A UPI payment is generally initiated using a payment address or other supported identifier and is processed through:
Correct
UPI supports interoperable real-time account-to-account payments through NPCI’s infrastructure.
Incorrect
UPI supports interoperable real-time account-to-account payments through NPCI’s infrastructure.
Unattempted
UPI supports interoperable real-time account-to-account payments through NPCI’s infrastructure.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
When selling a financial product, suitability and fair-treatment principles require a provider to:
Correct
Fair selling requires clear disclosure and recommendations aligned with customer needs and risk profile, as applicable.
Incorrect
Fair selling requires clear disclosure and recommendations aligned with customer needs and risk profile, as applicable.
Unattempted
Fair selling requires clear disclosure and recommendations aligned with customer needs and risk profile, as applicable.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
Securitisation generally involves:
Correct
Securitisation transforms pools of receivables into securities whose payments are linked to the asset pool’s cash flows.
Incorrect
Securitisation transforms pools of receivables into securities whose payments are linked to the asset pool’s cash flows.
Unattempted
Securitisation transforms pools of receivables into securities whose payments are linked to the asset pool’s cash flows.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
A key benefit of interoperable payment systems is that they:
Correct
Interoperability enables users of different participating providers to transact without being confined to one provider’s network.
Incorrect
Interoperability enables users of different participating providers to transact without being confined to one provider’s network.
Unattempted
Interoperability enables users of different participating providers to transact without being confined to one provider’s network.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
Factoring is a financing arrangement in which a business typically:
Correct
Factoring involves assignment or purchase of receivables and may include financing, collection and ledger services, subject to the arrangement.
Incorrect
Factoring involves assignment or purchase of receivables and may include financing, collection and ledger services, subject to the arrangement.
Unattempted
Factoring involves assignment or purchase of receivables and may include financing, collection and ledger services, subject to the arrangement.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
In a finance lease, the arrangement typically transfers to the lessee:
Correct
A finance lease is generally characterised by transfer of substantially all risks and rewards of ownership, assessed under applicable accounting standards and contract terms.
Incorrect
A finance lease is generally characterised by transfer of substantially all risks and rewards of ownership, assessed under applicable accounting standards and contract terms.
Unattempted
A finance lease is generally characterised by transfer of substantially all risks and rewards of ownership, assessed under applicable accounting standards and contract terms.