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- Questions: 100
- Time: 120 min
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
Which statement best describes the purpose of a conceptual framework for financial reporting?
Correct
A conceptual framework guides standard-setting and interpretation; it does not override a specific applicable standard.
Incorrect
A conceptual framework guides standard-setting and interpretation; it does not override a specific applicable standard.
Unattempted
A conceptual framework guides standard-setting and interpretation; it does not override a specific applicable standard.
-
Question 2 of 100
2. Question
A company sells equipment but retains substantially all risks and rewards and must repurchase it at a fixed price. What should accounting analysis focus on first?
Correct
Substance-over-form analysis examines the economic rights and obligations, not merely the transaction’s legal label.
Incorrect
Substance-over-form analysis examines the economic rights and obligations, not merely the transaction’s legal label.
Unattempted
Substance-over-form analysis examines the economic rights and obligations, not merely the transaction’s legal label.
-
Question 3 of 100
3. Question
The depreciation charge depends on management’s forecast of how long an asset will be used. Which underlying input is an estimate?
Correct
Useful life depends on assumptions and is an estimate; policies govern the principles and bases used in accounting.
Incorrect
Useful life depends on assumptions and is an estimate; policies govern the principles and bases used in accounting.
Unattempted
Useful life depends on assumptions and is an estimate; policies govern the principles and bases used in accounting.
-
Question 4 of 100
4. Question
Office furniture costing ₹48,000 is purchased for cash. Which entry records the transaction correctly?
Correct
Furniture is an asset increasing on debit; cash decreases and is credited.
Incorrect
Furniture is an asset increasing on debit; cash decreases and is credited.
Unattempted
Furniture is an asset increasing on debit; cash decreases and is credited.
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
A business withdraws ₹8,000 from its bank account and places it in the cash box. In a two-column cash book, this is normally recorded as:
Correct
The transaction transfers funds between two cash-book accounts, so it is recorded on both sides as a contra entry.
Incorrect
The transaction transfers funds between two cash-book accounts, so it is recorded on both sides as a contra entry.
Unattempted
The transaction transfers funds between two cash-book accounts, so it is recorded on both sides as a contra entry.
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Question 6 of 100
6. Question
A petty cashier has a fixed imprest of ₹4,000, vouchers of ₹2,760 and physical cash of ₹1,240. What reimbursement restores the imprest?
Correct
Reimbursement equals authorised expenditure supported by vouchers; ₹2,760 + ₹1,240 restores the ₹4,000 float.
Incorrect
Reimbursement equals authorised expenditure supported by vouchers; ₹2,760 + ₹1,240 restores the ₹4,000 float.
Unattempted
Reimbursement equals authorised expenditure supported by vouchers; ₹2,760 + ₹1,240 restores the ₹4,000 float.
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Question 7 of 100
7. Question
A cash book shows a debit bank balance of ₹75,000. Cheques issued for ₹9,000 have not yet been presented. With no other differences, the passbook balance is:
Correct
Unpresented cheques reduce the bank statement balance later, so the passbook balance is ₹75,000 + ₹9,000.
Incorrect
Unpresented cheques reduce the bank statement balance later, so the passbook balance is ₹75,000 + ₹9,000.
Unattempted
Unpresented cheques reduce the bank statement balance later, so the passbook balance is ₹75,000 + ₹9,000.
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
A cheque of ₹12,500 deposited was dishonoured, but the cash book has not yet been updated. To reconcile from the cash-book balance to the passbook balance, the dishonoured cheque should be:
Correct
The cash book still includes the deposit, while the bank has reversed it; deduct the amount to reach the passbook balance.
Incorrect
The cash book still includes the deposit, while the bank has reversed it; deduct the amount to reach the passbook balance.
Unattempted
The cash book still includes the deposit, while the bank has reversed it; deduct the amount to reach the passbook balance.
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
Which error may remain undetected even when the trial balance agrees?
Correct
A complete omission leaves both debit and credit unrecorded, so trial balance totals can still agree.
Incorrect
A complete omission leaves both debit and credit unrecorded, so trial balance totals can still agree.
Unattempted
A complete omission leaves both debit and credit unrecorded, so trial balance totals can still agree.
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
A trial balance has credit totals ₹3,200 greater than debit totals. Pending identification of the errors, the suspense account is opened. Which side should it initially have?
Correct
A suspense debit of ₹3,200 temporarily balances the excess of credits, pending investigation and correction.
Incorrect
A suspense debit of ₹3,200 temporarily balances the excess of credits, pending investigation and correction.
Unattempted
A suspense debit of ₹3,200 temporarily balances the excess of credits, pending investigation and correction.
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
A firm depreciates a ₹3,60,000 asset over six years and expects ₹30,000 at disposal. Using the straight-line method, what is the annual charge?
Correct
Depreciable amount = ₹3,60,000 − ₹30,000 = ₹3,30,000; annual depreciation = ₹3,30,000 ÷ 6 = ₹55,000.
Incorrect
Depreciable amount = ₹3,60,000 − ₹30,000 = ₹3,30,000; annual depreciation = ₹3,30,000 ÷ 6 = ₹55,000.
Unattempted
Depreciable amount = ₹3,60,000 − ₹30,000 = ₹3,30,000; annual depreciation = ₹3,30,000 ÷ 6 = ₹55,000.
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
A machine has an opening carrying amount of ₹2,00,000 and is depreciated at 20% under the written-down-value method. Depreciation for the year is:
Correct
WDV depreciation is applied to opening carrying amount: 20% × ₹2,00,000 = ₹40,000.
Incorrect
WDV depreciation is applied to opening carrying amount: 20% × ₹2,00,000 = ₹40,000.
Unattempted
WDV depreciation is applied to opening carrying amount: 20% × ₹2,00,000 = ₹40,000.
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
A machine with carrying amount ₹70,000 is sold for ₹64,000, with no selling costs. What is the result on disposal?
Correct
Proceeds of ₹64,000 are ₹6,000 below carrying amount, producing a loss of ₹6,000.
Incorrect
Proceeds of ₹64,000 are ₹6,000 below carrying amount, producing a loss of ₹6,000.
Unattempted
Proceeds of ₹64,000 are ₹6,000 below carrying amount, producing a loss of ₹6,000.
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
A business incurs substantial expenditure to extend a building’s capacity and useful life. If recognition criteria are met, the expenditure is generally:
Correct
Expenditure that enhances capacity or useful life and meets recognition criteria is generally capital in nature.
Incorrect
Expenditure that enhances capacity or useful life and meets recognition criteria is generally capital in nature.
Unattempted
Expenditure that enhances capacity or useful life and meets recognition criteria is generally capital in nature.
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
When inventory’s net realisable value falls below its cost, the usual financial-reporting principle is to measure it at:
Correct
Inventory is generally carried at the lower of cost and net realisable value.
Incorrect
Inventory is generally carried at the lower of cost and net realisable value.
Unattempted
Inventory is generally carried at the lower of cost and net realisable value.
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
The person who draws a bill of exchange is the person who:
Correct
The drawer creates the bill and orders the drawee to pay the specified sum to the payee or as directed.
Incorrect
The drawer creates the bill and orders the drawee to pay the specified sum to the payee or as directed.
Unattempted
The drawer creates the bill and orders the drawee to pay the specified sum to the payee or as directed.
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
A bill for ₹2,40,000 is discounted 60 days before maturity at 9% per annum on a 360-day basis. What is the bank discount?
Correct
Discount = ₹2,40,000 × 9% × 60/360 = ₹3,600.
Incorrect
Discount = ₹2,40,000 × 9% × 60/360 = ₹3,600.
Unattempted
Discount = ₹2,40,000 × 9% × 60/360 = ₹3,600.
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
At year-end, wages of ₹28,000 have been earned by employees but remain unpaid. The adjusting entry is:
Correct
Accrued wages are an expense of the period and a liability until paid.
Incorrect
Accrued wages are an expense of the period and a liability until paid.
Unattempted
Accrued wages are an expense of the period and a liability until paid.
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
Annual insurance of ₹24,000 is paid on 1 January for 12 months. At 31 March, assuming a calendar financial year and straight-line allocation, the prepaid portion is:
Correct
Three months’ expense is ₹6,000; nine months remain prepaid, equal to ₹18,000.
Incorrect
Three months’ expense is ₹6,000; nine months remain prepaid, equal to ₹18,000.
Unattempted
Three months’ expense is ₹6,000; nine months remain prepaid, equal to ₹18,000.
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
A bank receives commission in advance for a service to be delivered next quarter. Until the service is performed, the receipt is generally treated as:
Correct
Cash received before service performance creates an obligation; income is recognised as the service is delivered.
Incorrect
Cash received before service performance creates an obligation; income is recognised as the service is delivered.
Unattempted
Cash received before service performance creates an obligation; income is recognised as the service is delivered.
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
An inter-branch reconciliation item remains outstanding for several months. Which action is most appropriate?
Correct
Aged inter-branch differences require evidence-based tracing, confirmation, escalation and authorised correction.
Incorrect
Aged inter-branch differences require evidence-based tracing, confirmation, escalation and authorised correction.
Unattempted
Aged inter-branch differences require evidence-based tracing, confirmation, escalation and authorised correction.
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
Which procedure usually provides stronger external evidence of a receivable balance?
Correct
Direct third-party confirmation is generally stronger evidence than unsupported internal representations.
Incorrect
Direct third-party confirmation is generally stronger evidence than unsupported internal representations.
Unattempted
Direct third-party confirmation is generally stronger evidence than unsupported internal representations.
-
Question 23 of 100
23. Question
Segregation of duties in accounting primarily aims to:
Correct
Separating authorisation, custody and recording reduces opportunities for error or fraud to go undetected.
Incorrect
Separating authorisation, custody and recording reduces opportunities for error or fraud to go undetected.
Unattempted
Separating authorisation, custody and recording reduces opportunities for error or fraud to go undetected.
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
Transfer pricing principally concerns the price charged for transactions between:
Correct
Transfer pricing rules address transactions between associated enterprises and aim to prevent inappropriate profit shifting.
Incorrect
Transfer pricing rules address transactions between associated enterprises and aim to prevent inappropriate profit shifting.
Unattempted
Transfer pricing rules address transactions between associated enterprises and aim to prevent inappropriate profit shifting.
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
If a specific applicable accounting standard conflicts with a general conceptual-framework statement, an entity should normally:
Correct
The framework supports standard-setting but does not override a specific applicable accounting standard.
Incorrect
The framework supports standard-setting but does not override a specific applicable accounting standard.
Unattempted
The framework supports standard-setting but does not override a specific applicable accounting standard.
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
A statement of financial position reports total resources of ₹9,80,000 and obligations to outsiders of ₹3,45,000. Calculate the residual interest of the owners.
Correct
Equity = Assets − Liabilities = ₹9,80,000 − ₹3,45,000 = ₹6,35,000.
Incorrect
Equity = Assets − Liabilities = ₹9,80,000 − ₹3,45,000 = ₹6,35,000.
Unattempted
Equity = Assets − Liabilities = ₹9,80,000 − ₹3,45,000 = ₹6,35,000.
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
Closing inventory is omitted from the trial-balance adjustments and is not included elsewhere. In the usual trading-account treatment, this omission will generally:
Correct
Closing inventory reduces cost of goods sold; omitting it overstates cost of goods sold and understates gross profit.
Incorrect
Closing inventory reduces cost of goods sold; omitting it overstates cost of goods sold and understates gross profit.
Unattempted
Closing inventory reduces cost of goods sold; omitting it overstates cost of goods sold and understates gross profit.
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
A trial balance shows salaries ₹4,80,000; additional salaries of ₹35,000 are outstanding at year-end. What expense should appear in the income statement?
Correct
Accrual accounting includes salaries incurred during the period: ₹4,80,000 + ₹35,000 = ₹5,15,000.
Incorrect
Accrual accounting includes salaries incurred during the period: ₹4,80,000 + ₹35,000 = ₹5,15,000.
Unattempted
Accrual accounting includes salaries incurred during the period: ₹4,80,000 + ₹35,000 = ₹5,15,000.
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
Trade receivables are ₹5,00,000 and the required allowance is 4% of receivables. Assuming no existing allowance, what allowance is required?
Correct
Required allowance = 4% × ₹5,00,000 = ₹20,000.
Incorrect
Required allowance = 4% × ₹5,00,000 = ₹20,000.
Unattempted
Required allowance = 4% × ₹5,00,000 = ₹20,000.
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
An issuer receives ₹14 per share on 10,000 shares whose face value is ₹10. Assuming all shares are fully paid, how much of the proceeds represents share premium?
Correct
Premium per share is ₹4; 10,000 shares × ₹4 = ₹40,000 credited to securities premium.
Incorrect
Premium per share is ₹4; 10,000 shares × ₹4 = ₹40,000 credited to securities premium.
Unattempted
Premium per share is ₹4; 10,000 shares × ₹4 = ₹40,000 credited to securities premium.
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
A shareholder fails to pay a valid call amount by the due date. The unpaid amount is commonly described as:
Correct
Calls in arrears are amounts called by the company but not paid by shareholders when due.
Incorrect
Calls in arrears are amounts called by the company but not paid by shareholders when due.
Unattempted
Calls in arrears are amounts called by the company but not paid by shareholders when due.
-
Question 32 of 100
32. Question
Which feature most commonly distinguishes preference shares from ordinary equity shares?
Correct
Preference shares generally carry preferential rights regarding dividend and/or capital repayment, subject to issue terms and law.
Incorrect
Preference shares generally carry preferential rights regarding dividend and/or capital repayment, subject to issue terms and law.
Unattempted
Preference shares generally carry preferential rights regarding dividend and/or capital repayment, subject to issue terms and law.
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
Cash paid to acquire a long-term machine is normally classified in a cash-flow statement as:
Correct
Acquisition of property, plant and equipment is generally an investing cash flow.
Incorrect
Acquisition of property, plant and equipment is generally an investing cash flow.
Unattempted
Acquisition of property, plant and equipment is generally an investing cash flow.
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
Cash received from issuing ordinary shares is normally a:
Correct
Issuing equity changes the entity’s capital structure and is classified as a financing activity.
Incorrect
Issuing equity changes the entity’s capital structure and is classified as a financing activity.
Unattempted
Issuing equity changes the entity’s capital structure and is classified as a financing activity.
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
While converting profit before tax to operating cash flow under the indirect approach, why is the depreciation charge reversed?
Correct
Depreciation is a non-cash expense included in profit, so it is added back when reconciling profit to operating cash flow.
Incorrect
Depreciation is a non-cash expense included in profit, so it is added back when reconciling profit to operating cash flow.
Unattempted
Depreciation is a non-cash expense included in profit, so it is added back when reconciling profit to operating cash flow.
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
In traditional financial analysis, which balance-sheet resource category is examined to explain the sources and applications of funds over a period?
Correct
Traditional funds-flow analysis explains sources and applications of funds and changes in working capital.
Incorrect
Traditional funds-flow analysis explains sources and applications of funds and changes in working capital.
Unattempted
Traditional funds-flow analysis explains sources and applications of funds and changes in working capital.
-
Question 37 of 100
37. Question
In a bank’s balance sheet, customer deposits are generally shown as:
Correct
Deposits are amounts the bank owes to customers and are therefore liabilities.
Incorrect
Deposits are amounts the bank owes to customers and are therefore liabilities.
Unattempted
Deposits are amounts the bank owes to customers and are therefore liabilities.
-
Question 38 of 100
38. Question
A bank accrues interest due from borrowers on performing advances. In which broad income category is this normally presented?
Correct
Interest on advances is income earned from the bank’s lending activity.
Incorrect
Interest on advances is income earned from the bank’s lending activity.
Unattempted
Interest on advances is income earned from the bank’s lending activity.
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
A reader needs to understand accounting policies, material balances and risk-related details behind a bank’s headline figures. Which part of the annual financial statements provides these explanations?
Correct
Notes provide material accounting policies, breakdowns, risk information and other disclosures needed to understand the statements.
Incorrect
Notes provide material accounting policies, breakdowns, risk information and other disclosures needed to understand the statements.
Unattempted
Notes provide material accounting policies, breakdowns, risk information and other disclosures needed to understand the statements.
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
A parent controls another entity and is required to prepare consolidated financial statements. The consolidation generally presents:
Correct
Consolidated statements portray the parent and its subsidiaries as a single economic entity, eliminating intra-group balances and transactions.
Incorrect
Consolidated statements portray the parent and its subsidiaries as a single economic entity, eliminating intra-group balances and transactions.
Unattempted
Consolidated statements portray the parent and its subsidiaries as a single economic entity, eliminating intra-group balances and transactions.
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
In a core banking system, a customer’s account transaction at a branch other than the home branch is typically enabled by:
Correct
CBS enables authorised transactions across branches through shared central records and network connectivity.
Incorrect
CBS enables authorised transactions across branches through shared central records and network connectivity.
Unattempted
CBS enables authorised transactions across branches through shared central records and network connectivity.
-
Question 42 of 100
42. Question
Which control most directly helps preserve an audit trail in a computerised accounting system?
Correct
Unique IDs and change logs support accountability and traceability of transactions and amendments.
Incorrect
Unique IDs and change logs support accountability and traceability of transactions and amendments.
Unattempted
Unique IDs and change logs support accountability and traceability of transactions and amendments.
-
Question 43 of 100
43. Question
A bank stores a backup on the same server as its live database. What is the principal weakness?
Correct
A common failure or attack can affect both copies; separate, protected backup locations improve resilience.
Incorrect
A common failure or attack can affect both copies; separate, protected backup locations improve resilience.
Unattempted
A common failure or attack can affect both copies; separate, protected backup locations improve resilience.
-
Question 44 of 100
44. Question
A recovery time objective (RTO) primarily specifies:
Correct
RTO sets the target time within which a system or service should be restored after disruption.
Incorrect
RTO sets the target time within which a system or service should be restored after disruption.
Unattempted
RTO sets the target time within which a system or service should be restored after disruption.
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
A recovery point objective (RPO) of 30 minutes means the organisation aims to limit data loss to approximately:
Correct
RPO defines the maximum targeted period of data that may be lost, expressed as time before disruption.
Incorrect
RPO defines the maximum targeted period of data that may be lost, expressed as time before disruption.
Unattempted
RPO defines the maximum targeted period of data that may be lost, expressed as time before disruption.
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
Which is an example of an IT general control?
Correct
Access management is an IT general control that supports secure and reliable processing across applications.
Incorrect
Access management is an IT general control that supports secure and reliable processing across applications.
Unattempted
Access management is an IT general control that supports secure and reliable processing across applications.
-
Question 47 of 100
47. Question
An auditor obtains sufficient appropriate evidence and concludes that financial statements are free from material misstatement. The auditor may issue:
Correct
An unmodified opinion is appropriate when the auditor concludes the statements are prepared, in all material respects, under the applicable framework.
Incorrect
An unmodified opinion is appropriate when the auditor concludes the statements are prepared, in all material respects, under the applicable framework.
Unattempted
An unmodified opinion is appropriate when the auditor concludes the statements are prepared, in all material respects, under the applicable framework.
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
A suspense ledger in a bank should be used primarily to:
Correct
Suspense accounts are temporary control mechanisms; items should be investigated and cleared promptly.
Incorrect
Suspense accounts are temporary control mechanisms; items should be investigated and cleared promptly.
Unattempted
Suspense accounts are temporary control mechanisms; items should be investigated and cleared promptly.
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
A bank changes a material accounting policy where permitted. Which disclosure is most useful to users?
Correct
Users need to understand why a policy changed and how the change affects reported figures and comparability.
Incorrect
Users need to understand why a policy changed and how the change affects reported figures and comparability.
Unattempted
Users need to understand why a policy changed and how the change affects reported figures and comparability.
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
Regulatory capital disclosures in a bank’s annual report primarily help users assess:
Correct
Capital disclosures explain regulatory capital resources, risk-weighted exposures and compliance with applicable capital requirements.
Incorrect
Capital disclosures explain regulatory capital resources, risk-weighted exposures and compliance with applicable capital requirements.
Unattempted
Capital disclosures explain regulatory capital resources, risk-weighted exposures and compliance with applicable capital requirements.
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
For a company whose shares are publicly traded, the conventional financial-management objective is most often framed as:
Correct
Shareholder wealth maximisation considers expected cash flows, timing and risk rather than sales or short-term profit alone.
Incorrect
Shareholder wealth maximisation considers expected cash flows, timing and risk rather than sales or short-term profit alone.
Unattempted
Shareholder wealth maximisation considers expected cash flows, timing and risk rather than sales or short-term profit alone.
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
An agency problem can arise when:
Correct
Agency conflict occurs when agents’ incentives differ from principals’ interests.
Incorrect
Agency conflict occurs when agents’ incentives differ from principals’ interests.
Unattempted
Agency conflict occurs when agents’ incentives differ from principals’ interests.
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
A company can realise ₹7.2 lakh of current assets and owes ₹4.8 lakh within the current period. What is its short-term liquidity ratio?
Correct
Current ratio = current assets ÷ current liabilities = 7,20,000 ÷ 4,80,000 = 1.5.
Incorrect
Current ratio = current assets ÷ current liabilities = 7,20,000 ÷ 4,80,000 = 1.5.
Unattempted
Current ratio = current assets ÷ current liabilities = 7,20,000 ÷ 4,80,000 = 1.5.
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
Current assets are ₹9,00,000, inventory ₹2,50,000 and prepaid expenses ₹50,000. Current liabilities are ₹5,00,000. The quick ratio is:
Correct
Quick assets = 9,00,000 − 2,50,000 − 50,000 = 6,00,000; quick ratio = 6,00,000 ÷ 5,00,000 = 1.2.
Incorrect
Quick assets = 9,00,000 − 2,50,000 − 50,000 = 6,00,000; quick ratio = 6,00,000 ÷ 5,00,000 = 1.2.
Unattempted
Quick assets = 9,00,000 − 2,50,000 − 50,000 = 6,00,000; quick ratio = 6,00,000 ÷ 5,00,000 = 1.2.
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
A borrower has ₹12 lakh of interest-bearing borrowings supported by ₹20 lakh of owners’ funds. Determine debt as a proportion of equity.
Correct
Debt-equity ratio = debt ÷ equity = 12 ÷ 20 = 0.6.
Incorrect
Debt-equity ratio = debt ÷ equity = 12 ÷ 20 = 0.6.
Unattempted
Debt-equity ratio = debt ÷ equity = 12 ÷ 20 = 0.6.
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
During the year, goods costing ₹18 lakh were issued/sold; average stock held was ₹3 lakh. How many times did inventory turn over?
Correct
Inventory turnover = cost of goods sold ÷ average inventory = 18 ÷ 3 = 6 times.
Incorrect
Inventory turnover = cost of goods sold ÷ average inventory = 18 ÷ 3 = 6 times.
Unattempted
Inventory turnover = cost of goods sold ÷ average inventory = 18 ÷ 3 = 6 times.
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
Credit sales are ₹36 lakh and average trade receivables are ₹6 lakh. Using 360 days, the average collection period is:
Correct
Receivables days = average receivables ÷ credit sales × 360 = 6/36 × 360 = 60 days.
Incorrect
Receivables days = average receivables ÷ credit sales × 360 = 6/36 × 360 = 60 days.
Unattempted
Receivables days = average receivables ÷ credit sales × 360 = 6/36 × 360 = 60 days.
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
Profit after tax is ₹4.5 lakh and average shareholders’ equity is ₹30 lakh. Return on equity is:
Correct
ROE = profit after tax ÷ average equity × 100 = 4.5/30 × 100 = 15%.
Incorrect
ROE = profit after tax ÷ average equity × 100 = 4.5/30 × 100 = 15%.
Unattempted
ROE = profit after tax ÷ average equity × 100 = 4.5/30 × 100 = 15%.
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
A deposit of ₹80,000 earns non-compounding interest at 7.5% each year. What interest accumulates over 24 months?
Correct
Simple interest = P × R × T = ₹80,000 × 7.5% × 2 = ₹12,000.
Incorrect
Simple interest = P × R × T = ₹80,000 × 7.5% × 2 = ₹12,000.
Unattempted
Simple interest = P × R × T = ₹80,000 × 7.5% × 2 = ₹12,000.
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
An investor leaves ₹50,000 untouched for two annual compounding periods at 8%. What amount will be available at maturity?
Correct
Maturity value = ₹50,000 × 1.08² = ₹58,320.
Incorrect
Maturity value = ₹50,000 × 1.08² = ₹58,320.
Unattempted
Maturity value = ₹50,000 × 1.08² = ₹58,320.
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
A lender quotes a nominal rate of 12% per annum, applying interest in 12 equal monthly compounding periods. What annual rate reflects compounding?
Correct
EAR = (1 + 0.12/12)^12 − 1 ≈ 12.68%.
Incorrect
EAR = (1 + 0.12/12)^12 − 1 ≈ 12.68%.
Unattempted
EAR = (1 + 0.12/12)^12 − 1 ≈ 12.68%.
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
A payment of ₹1.21 lakh will be received two years from now. At a 10% annual compound discount rate, what is its value today?
Correct
PV = 1,21,000 ÷ 1.1² = ₹1,00,000.
Incorrect
PV = 1,21,000 ÷ 1.1² = ₹1,00,000.
Unattempted
PV = 1,21,000 ÷ 1.1² = ₹1,00,000.
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
Three year-end deposits of ₹10,000 earn 10% annually. Calculate the accumulated balance just after the third deposit is made.
Correct
FV of ordinary annuity = 10,000 × [((1.1³ − 1)/0.1)] = ₹33,100.
Incorrect
FV of ordinary annuity = 10,000 × [((1.1³ − 1)/0.1)] = ₹33,100.
Unattempted
FV of ordinary annuity = 10,000 × [((1.1³ − 1)/0.1)] = ₹33,100.
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
In a fully amortising loan with a fixed periodic instalment and a positive interest rate, the interest component of each instalment generally:
Correct
Interest is calculated on outstanding principal, which generally falls as repayments are made.
Incorrect
Interest is calculated on outstanding principal, which generally falls as repayments are made.
Unattempted
Interest is calculated on outstanding principal, which generally falls as repayments are made.
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
An investor pays ₹950 for a ₹1,000 face-value bond that pays ₹80 coupon income each year. What is the coupon income divided by market price?
Correct
Current yield = annual coupon ₹80 ÷ market price ₹950 × 100 ≈ 8.42%.
Incorrect
Current yield = annual coupon ₹80 ÷ market price ₹950 × 100 ≈ 8.42%.
Unattempted
Current yield = annual coupon ₹80 ÷ market price ₹950 × 100 ≈ 8.42%.
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
An outstanding fixed-coupon security becomes less attractive after comparable new securities begin offering higher yields. What normally happens to its market price?
Correct
A fixed coupon becomes less attractive relative to newly issued higher-yielding bonds, so its price falls.
Incorrect
A fixed coupon becomes less attractive relative to newly issued higher-yielding bonds, so its price falls.
Unattempted
A fixed coupon becomes less attractive relative to newly issued higher-yielding bonds, so its price falls.
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Question 67 of 100
67. Question
For a conventional option-free fixed-rate bond, modified duration is commonly used as an approximation of:
Correct
Modified duration estimates percentage price change for a small yield change, with convexity affecting the approximation.
Incorrect
Modified duration estimates percentage price change for a small yield change, with convexity affecting the approximation.
Unattempted
Modified duration estimates percentage price change for a small yield change, with convexity affecting the approximation.
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
A currency is quoted at ₹83.20 per unit spot and the one-year forward rate is ₹84.45. The foreign currency is at:
Correct
The forward rate exceeds spot by ₹1.25 per unit, so the foreign currency is at a forward premium in rupee terms.
Incorrect
The forward rate exceeds spot by ₹1.25 per unit, so the foreign currency is at a forward premium in rupee terms.
Unattempted
The forward rate exceeds spot by ₹1.25 per unit, so the foreign currency is at a forward premium in rupee terms.
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Question 69 of 100
69. Question
If USD/INR = 84 and EUR/USD = 1.10, what is EUR/INR, ignoring spreads?
Correct
EUR/INR = EUR/USD × USD/INR = 1.10 × 84 = ₹92.40.
Incorrect
EUR/INR = EUR/USD × USD/INR = 1.10 × 84 = ₹92.40.
Unattempted
EUR/INR = EUR/USD × USD/INR = 1.10 × 84 = ₹92.40.
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
After discounting all forecast receipts, a project’s inflows are worth ₹2.35 lakh today against an initial outlay of ₹2 lakh. What is the net present value?
Correct
NPV = PV of inflows − initial investment = 2,35,000 − 2,00,000 = ₹35,000.
Incorrect
NPV = PV of inflows − initial investment = 2,35,000 − 2,00,000 = ₹35,000.
Unattempted
NPV = PV of inflows − initial investment = 2,35,000 − 2,00,000 = ₹35,000.
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
Which rate of return makes the discounted value of a project’s expected net cash flows equal to its initial investment?
Correct
IRR is the rate that equates the present value of inflows and outflows, making NPV zero.
Incorrect
IRR is the rate that equates the present value of inflows and outflows, making NPV zero.
Unattempted
IRR is the rate that equates the present value of inflows and outflows, making NPV zero.
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
A capital outlay of ₹3 lakh is recovered through uniform cash receipts of ₹75,000 at each year-end. How long until the initial outlay is recovered, ignoring discounting?
Correct
Payback period = initial investment ÷ annual inflow = 3,00,000 ÷ 75,000 = 4 years.
Incorrect
Payback period = initial investment ÷ annual inflow = 3,00,000 ÷ 75,000 = 4 years.
Unattempted
Payback period = initial investment ÷ annual inflow = 3,00,000 ÷ 75,000 = 4 years.
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
Equity represents 60% of a company’s financing and costs 14%; after-tax debt is 40% at 8%. Find the weighted average financing cost.
Correct
WACC = 0.60 × 14% + 0.40 × 8% = 8.4% + 3.2% = 11.6%.
Incorrect
WACC = 0.60 × 14% + 0.40 × 8% = 8.4% + 3.2% = 11.6%.
Unattempted
WACC = 0.60 × 14% + 0.40 × 8% = 8.4% + 3.2% = 11.6%.
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
A manufacturer’s cost base is dominated by fixed factory expenses rather than variable costs. What does this imply about the sensitivity of operating profit to sales?
Correct
High fixed operating costs amplify the effect of changes in sales on operating profit.
Incorrect
High fixed operating costs amplify the effect of changes in sales on operating profit.
Unattempted
High fixed operating costs amplify the effect of changes in sales on operating profit.
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
A company’s inventory days are 50, receivable days 40 and payable days 30. Its operating cash-conversion cycle is:
Correct
Cash-conversion cycle = inventory days + receivable days − payable days = 50 + 40 − 30 = 60 days.
Incorrect
Cash-conversion cycle = inventory days + receivable days − payable days = 50 + 40 − 30 = 60 days.
Unattempted
Cash-conversion cycle = inventory days + receivable days − payable days = 50 + 40 − 30 = 60 days.
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
For a tax year beginning on or after 1 April 2026, which legislation is the principal new income-tax statute, subject to its commencement and transition provisions?
Correct
The Income-tax Act, 2025 came into force on 1 April 2026; transitional rules may preserve treatment for earlier periods and proceedings.
Incorrect
The Income-tax Act, 2025 came into force on 1 April 2026; transitional rules may preserve treatment for earlier periods and proceedings.
Unattempted
The Income-tax Act, 2025 came into force on 1 April 2026; transitional rules may preserve treatment for earlier periods and proceedings.
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
For the new income-tax framework commencing in April 2026, what is the statutory name for the relevant 12-month period beginning 1 April?
Correct
The new Act uses “tax year” terminology for the relevant 12-month period, replacing the former previous-year/assessment-year framework for new periods.
Incorrect
The new Act uses “tax year” terminology for the relevant 12-month period, replacing the former previous-year/assessment-year framework for new periods.
Unattempted
The new Act uses “tax year” terminology for the relevant 12-month period, replacing the former previous-year/assessment-year framework for new periods.
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Question 78 of 100
78. Question
A business deducts tax from a contractor’s payment. In the payer’s books, the amount deducted but not yet remitted is generally recorded as:
Correct
Tax deducted and held pending remittance is a liability of the deductor until paid to the government.
Incorrect
Tax deducted and held pending remittance is a liability of the deductor until paid to the government.
Unattempted
Tax deducted and held pending remittance is a liability of the deductor until paid to the government.
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
Deferred tax generally arises because of:
Correct
Deferred tax reflects temporary differences expected to affect taxable profit when assets are recovered or liabilities settled.
Incorrect
Deferred tax reflects temporary differences expected to affect taxable profit when assets are recovered or liabilities settled.
Unattempted
Deferred tax reflects temporary differences expected to affect taxable profit when assets are recovered or liabilities settled.
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
Subject to statutory conditions, input tax credit under GST is intended to reduce:
Correct
Input tax credit offsets eligible input GST against output tax, reducing cascading where the legal conditions are met.
Incorrect
Input tax credit offsets eligible input GST against output tax, reducing cascading where the legal conditions are met.
Unattempted
Input tax credit offsets eligible input GST against output tax, reducing cascading where the legal conditions are met.
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
Within a normal production band, rent for the factory remains ₹2 lakh in total whether output rises or falls. How is this cost classified?
Correct
A fixed cost remains constant in total over a relevant range, although fixed cost per unit changes with output.
Incorrect
A fixed cost remains constant in total over a relevant range, although fixed cost per unit changes with output.
Unattempted
A fixed cost remains constant in total over a relevant range, although fixed cost per unit changes with output.
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
If direct material costs are ₹120 per unit, total direct material cost for 750 units is:
Correct
Total variable material cost = ₹120 × 750 = ₹90,000.
Incorrect
Total variable material cost = ₹120 × 750 = ₹90,000.
Unattempted
Total variable material cost = ₹120 × 750 = ₹90,000.
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
A cost sheet shows direct material ₹1.80 lakh, direct wages ₹95,000 and direct expenses ₹15,000. Compute the prime-cost subtotal.
Correct
Prime cost = direct materials + direct labour + direct expenses = ₹1,80,000 + ₹95,000 + ₹15,000 = ₹2,90,000.
Incorrect
Prime cost = direct materials + direct labour + direct expenses = ₹1,80,000 + ₹95,000 + ₹15,000 = ₹2,90,000.
Unattempted
Prime cost = direct materials + direct labour + direct expenses = ₹1,80,000 + ₹95,000 + ₹15,000 = ₹2,90,000.
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
For a production period, prime cost is ₹2.90 lakh, factory overhead ₹60,000, opening unfinished work ₹12,000 and closing unfinished work ₹17,000. Find factory/works cost.
Correct
Works cost = prime cost + factory overhead + opening WIP − closing WIP = 2,90,000 + 60,000 + 12,000 − 17,000 = ₹3,45,000.
Incorrect
Works cost = prime cost + factory overhead + opening WIP − closing WIP = 2,90,000 + 60,000 + 12,000 − 17,000 = ₹3,45,000.
Unattempted
Works cost = prime cost + factory overhead + opening WIP − closing WIP = 2,90,000 + 60,000 + 12,000 − 17,000 = ₹3,45,000.
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
When valuing manufactured inventory using full absorption costing, how is fixed production overhead treated?
Correct
Absorption costing includes both variable and fixed production overhead in product cost, subject to allocation rules.
Incorrect
Absorption costing includes both variable and fixed production overhead in product cost, subject to allocation rules.
Unattempted
Absorption costing includes both variable and fixed production overhead in product cost, subject to allocation rules.
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
Under marginal costing, fixed manufacturing overhead is normally treated as:
Correct
Marginal costing expenses fixed manufacturing overhead in the period rather than allocating it to unit inventory cost.
Incorrect
Marginal costing expenses fixed manufacturing overhead in the period rather than allocating it to unit inventory cost.
Unattempted
Marginal costing expenses fixed manufacturing overhead in the period rather than allocating it to unit inventory cost.
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Question 87 of 100
87. Question
Fixed costs are ₹1,80,000, selling price per unit ₹150 and variable cost per unit ₹90. Break-even volume is:
Correct
Contribution per unit = ₹150 − ₹90 = ₹60; break-even units = 1,80,000 ÷ 60 = 3,000.
Incorrect
Contribution per unit = ₹150 − ₹90 = ₹60; break-even units = 1,80,000 ÷ 60 = 3,000.
Unattempted
Contribution per unit = ₹150 − ₹90 = ₹60; break-even units = 1,80,000 ÷ 60 = 3,000.
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
Sales are ₹8,00,000 and variable costs are ₹5,20,000. Contribution is:
Correct
Contribution = sales − variable costs = ₹8,00,000 − ₹5,20,000 = ₹2,80,000.
Incorrect
Contribution = sales − variable costs = ₹8,00,000 − ₹5,20,000 = ₹2,80,000.
Unattempted
Contribution = sales − variable costs = ₹8,00,000 − ₹5,20,000 = ₹2,80,000.
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
Contribution is ₹3,00,000 on sales of ₹7,50,000. The P/V ratio is:
Correct
P/V ratio = contribution ÷ sales × 100 = 3,00,000/7,50,000 × 100 = 40%.
Incorrect
P/V ratio = contribution ÷ sales × 100 = 3,00,000/7,50,000 × 100 = 40%.
Unattempted
P/V ratio = contribution ÷ sales × 100 = 3,00,000/7,50,000 × 100 = 40%.
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
A business sells goods worth ₹10 lakh while its break-even revenue is ₹7.5 lakh. Express the excess of actual sales over break-even sales as a percentage of actual sales.
Correct
Margin of safety = 10,00,000 − 7,50,000 = ₹2,50,000; percentage = 2,50,000/10,00,000 × 100 = 25%.
Incorrect
Margin of safety = 10,00,000 − 7,50,000 = ₹2,50,000; percentage = 2,50,000/10,00,000 × 100 = 25%.
Unattempted
Margin of safety = 10,00,000 − 7,50,000 = ₹2,50,000; percentage = 2,50,000/10,00,000 × 100 = 25%.
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
A purchase department buys 2,000 kg at ₹54 per kg against a standard of ₹50 per kg. Calculate the material price variance and classify it.
Correct
Price variance = AQ × (SP − AP) = 2,000 × (50 − 54) = −₹8,000, i.e. adverse.
Incorrect
Price variance = AQ × (SP − AP) = 2,000 × (50 − 54) = −₹8,000, i.e. adverse.
Unattempted
Price variance = AQ × (SP − AP) = 2,000 × (50 − 54) = −₹8,000, i.e. adverse.
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
Actual quantity used is 1,100 kg, standard quantity allowed 1,000 kg and standard price ₹20/kg. Material usage variance is:
Correct
Usage variance = SP × (SQ − AQ) = 20 × (1,000 − 1,100) = −₹2,000, adverse.
Incorrect
Usage variance = SP × (SQ − AQ) = 20 × (1,000 − 1,100) = −₹2,000, adverse.
Unattempted
Usage variance = SP × (SQ − AQ) = 20 × (1,000 − 1,100) = −₹2,000, adverse.
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Question 93 of 100
93. Question
Workers complete 400 hours at ₹160 per hour, while the standard wage is ₹150 per hour. Determine the labour rate variance.
Correct
Rate variance = AH × (SR − AR) = 400 × (150 − 160) = −₹4,000, adverse.
Incorrect
Rate variance = AH × (SR − AR) = 400 × (150 − 160) = −₹4,000, adverse.
Unattempted
Rate variance = AH × (SR − AR) = 400 × (150 − 160) = −₹4,000, adverse.
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
Management wants a budget that can be restated for the actual volume of activity before comparing costs. Which budget approach meets this need?
Correct
A flexible budget recalculates expectations for the actual activity level, helping compare performance fairly.
Incorrect
A flexible budget recalculates expectations for the actual activity level, helping compare performance fairly.
Unattempted
A flexible budget recalculates expectations for the actual activity level, helping compare performance fairly.
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
Under which budgeting method must each activity be justified afresh instead of automatically inheriting last year’s allocation?
Correct
ZBB requires activities and spending levels to be justified afresh through decision packages.
Incorrect
ZBB requires activities and spending levels to be justified afresh through decision packages.
Unattempted
ZBB requires activities and spending levels to be justified afresh through decision packages.
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
Process costing is most suitable when output consists of:
Correct
Process costing accumulates costs by process or department for homogeneous mass production.
Incorrect
Process costing accumulates costs by process or department for homogeneous mass production.
Unattempted
Process costing accumulates costs by process or department for homogeneous mass production.
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
A process has partly completed work-in-progress at period-end. Which calculation allows those incomplete units to share costs fairly with completed output?
Correct
Equivalent units reflect the degree of completion of work-in-progress for cost allocation.
Incorrect
Equivalent units reflect the degree of completion of work-in-progress for cost allocation.
Unattempted
Equivalent units reflect the degree of completion of work-in-progress for cost allocation.
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
In contract costing, retention money is generally the amount:
Correct
Retention money protects the customer’s performance/defect obligations and is released under the contract terms.
Incorrect
Retention money protects the customer’s performance/defect obligations and is released under the contract terms.
Unattempted
Retention money protects the customer’s performance/defect obligations and is released under the contract terms.
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Question 99 of 100
99. Question
For a hospital ward, a suitable service cost unit may be:
Correct
Patient-day combines service capacity/time and is a common unit for hospital service costing.
Incorrect
Patient-day combines service capacity/time and is a common unit for hospital service costing.
Unattempted
Patient-day combines service capacity/time and is a common unit for hospital service costing.
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
The main purpose of comparing actual performance with budget is to:
Correct
Budgetary control uses variance analysis to support accountability, investigation and corrective management action.
Incorrect
Budgetary control uses variance analysis to support accountability, investigation and corrective management action.
Unattempted
Budgetary control uses variance analysis to support accountability, investigation and corrective management action.