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Your results are here!! for" RISK MANAGEMENT MODULE F QUIZ 2 "
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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
A trader writes (sells) a call option. What is the trader’s basic contractual position?
Correct
The writer receives the premium and assumes the obligation to perform if the holder exercises under the contract terms. A call writer may have substantial or theoretically unlimited loss if unhedged, because the underlying price can rise significantly.
Incorrect
The writer receives the premium and assumes the obligation to perform if the holder exercises under the contract terms. A call writer may have substantial or theoretically unlimited loss if unhedged, because the underlying price can rise significantly.
Unattempted
The writer receives the premium and assumes the obligation to perform if the holder exercises under the contract terms. A call writer may have substantial or theoretically unlimited loss if unhedged, because the underlying price can rise significantly.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
An option premium is ₹28 and its intrinsic value is ₹18. What is its time value?
Correct
Option time value is the premium in excess of intrinsic value. Here, ₹28 − ₹18 = ₹10. Time value reflects factors such as time remaining, volatility, rates and other pricing inputs.
Incorrect
Option time value is the premium in excess of intrinsic value. Here, ₹28 − ₹18 = ₹10. Time value reflects factors such as time remaining, volatility, rates and other pricing inputs.
Unattempted
Option time value is the premium in excess of intrinsic value. Here, ₹28 − ₹18 = ₹10. Time value reflects factors such as time remaining, volatility, rates and other pricing inputs.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
A call option has strike ₹100 and expires when the underlying price is ₹92. What is the holder’s payoff at expiry, before considering the premium?
Correct
The call payoff at expiry is max(S_T − K, 0). Since ₹92 is below the ₹100 strike, exercising would not be beneficial and the payoff is zero. The buyer’s net result is a loss of the premium paid.
Incorrect
The call payoff at expiry is max(S_T − K, 0). Since ₹92 is below the ₹100 strike, exercising would not be beneficial and the payoff is zero. The buyer’s net result is a loss of the premium paid.
Unattempted
The call payoff at expiry is max(S_T − K, 0). Since ₹92 is below the ₹100 strike, exercising would not be beneficial and the payoff is zero. The buyer’s net result is a loss of the premium paid.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
An investor owns shares and wants protection against a substantial price fall while retaining upside if the shares rise. Which strategy best fits this objective?
Correct
Buying a put on shares already owned creates a protective put. The put establishes a floor-like payoff below the strike, while the investor retains gains from rising share prices, net of the premium and other costs.
Incorrect
Buying a put on shares already owned creates a protective put. The put establishes a floor-like payoff below the strike, while the investor retains gains from rising share prices, net of the premium and other costs.
Unattempted
Buying a put on shares already owned creates a protective put. The put establishes a floor-like payoff below the strike, while the investor retains gains from rising share prices, net of the premium and other costs.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
For European call and put options on a non-dividend-paying share with the same strike and expiry, put-call parity links the call, put, spot price and present value of the strike. Which relationship is correct under standard assumptions?
Correct
For European options on a non-dividend-paying underlying, put-call parity is C + PV(K) = P + S₀. It follows from constructing equivalent payoffs with a call plus a risk-free bond and a put plus the underlying. Dividends and market frictions modify the relationship.
Incorrect
For European options on a non-dividend-paying underlying, put-call parity is C + PV(K) = P + S₀. It follows from constructing equivalent payoffs with a call plus a risk-free bond and a put plus the underlying. Dividends and market frictions modify the relationship.
Unattempted
For European options on a non-dividend-paying underlying, put-call parity is C + PV(K) = P + S₀. It follows from constructing equivalent payoffs with a call plus a risk-free bond and a put plus the underlying. Dividends and market frictions modify the relationship.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
All else equal, what is the usual effect of an increase in volatility on the value of a plain-vanilla option?
Correct
Higher volatility generally increases the value of both calls and puts, all else equal, because the option holder benefits from favourable price movements while the payoff is bounded below by zero. This is a standard result for plain-vanilla options, subject to assumptions and product details.
Incorrect
Higher volatility generally increases the value of both calls and puts, all else equal, because the option holder benefits from favourable price movements while the payoff is bounded below by zero. This is a standard result for plain-vanilla options, subject to assumptions and product details.
Unattempted
Higher volatility generally increases the value of both calls and puts, all else equal, because the option holder benefits from favourable price movements while the payoff is bounded below by zero. This is a standard result for plain-vanilla options, subject to assumptions and product details.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
A borrower with floating-rate debt buys an interest-rate cap. What is the principal purpose of the cap?
Correct
An interest-rate cap pays when the reference rate exceeds the cap rate under the contract’s terms. It helps a floating-rate borrower limit the effective interest rate above a specified level, while allowing the borrower to benefit if rates fall, in exchange for the premium and subject to basis risk.
Incorrect
An interest-rate cap pays when the reference rate exceeds the cap rate under the contract’s terms. It helps a floating-rate borrower limit the effective interest rate above a specified level, while allowing the borrower to benefit if rates fall, in exchange for the premium and subject to basis risk.
Unattempted
An interest-rate cap pays when the reference rate exceeds the cap rate under the contract’s terms. It helps a floating-rate borrower limit the effective interest rate above a specified level, while allowing the borrower to benefit if rates fall, in exchange for the premium and subject to basis risk.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
A lender receives floating-rate interest and wants protection against rates falling below a specified level. Which derivative most directly fits this need?
Correct
An interest-rate floor pays when the reference rate falls below the floor strike. It can protect a lender or investor whose income declines as rates fall. Caps protect against rising rates; collars combine a cap and floor.
Incorrect
An interest-rate floor pays when the reference rate falls below the floor strike. It can protect a lender or investor whose income declines as rates fall. Caps protect against rising rates; collars combine a cap and floor.
Unattempted
An interest-rate floor pays when the reference rate falls below the floor strike. It can protect a lender or investor whose income declines as rates fall. Caps protect against rising rates; collars combine a cap and floor.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Two parties agree to exchange specified cash flows over time, such as fixed interest payments for floating interest payments. This contract is a:
Correct
A swap is a derivative agreement to exchange cash flows according to specified terms. Interest-rate swaps commonly exchange fixed and floating interest cash flows on a notional principal, which is generally not exchanged in a plain-vanilla interest-rate swap.
Incorrect
A swap is a derivative agreement to exchange cash flows according to specified terms. Interest-rate swaps commonly exchange fixed and floating interest cash flows on a notional principal, which is generally not exchanged in a plain-vanilla interest-rate swap.
Unattempted
A swap is a derivative agreement to exchange cash flows according to specified terms. Interest-rate swaps commonly exchange fixed and floating interest cash flows on a notional principal, which is generally not exchanged in a plain-vanilla interest-rate swap.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
A company has floating-rate debt but wants to make fixed-rate payments to reduce uncertainty about future interest costs. Which plain-vanilla swap position generally supports this objective?
Correct
The company can pay fixed and receive floating in an interest-rate swap. The floating receipts can offset the floating payments on its debt, leaving an approximately fixed net interest cost, subject to basis risk, reset dates, notional and other mismatches.
Incorrect
The company can pay fixed and receive floating in an interest-rate swap. The floating receipts can offset the floating payments on its debt, leaving an approximately fixed net interest cost, subject to basis risk, reset dates, notional and other mismatches.
Unattempted
The company can pay fixed and receive floating in an interest-rate swap. The floating receipts can offset the floating payments on its debt, leaving an approximately fixed net interest cost, subject to basis risk, reset dates, notional and other mismatches.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
A bank pays fixed interest at 5% and receives floating interest at 4% on a notional principal of ₹10 crore for a one-year period. Ignoring day-count conventions and fees, what is the net cash flow to the bank?
Correct
Fixed payment is 5% × ₹10 crore = ₹50 lakh. Floating receipt is 4% × ₹10 crore = ₹40 lakh. Net cash flow to the bank is ₹10 lakh paid, because its fixed payment exceeds its floating receipt. In practice, swaps generally exchange the net difference for a period rather than exchanging the full notional.
Incorrect
Fixed payment is 5% × ₹10 crore = ₹50 lakh. Floating receipt is 4% × ₹10 crore = ₹40 lakh. Net cash flow to the bank is ₹10 lakh paid, because its fixed payment exceeds its floating receipt. In practice, swaps generally exchange the net difference for a period rather than exchanging the full notional.
Unattempted
Fixed payment is 5% × ₹10 crore = ₹50 lakh. Floating receipt is 4% × ₹10 crore = ₹40 lakh. Net cash flow to the bank is ₹10 lakh paid, because its fixed payment exceeds its floating receipt. In practice, swaps generally exchange the net difference for a period rather than exchanging the full notional.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
In a standard plain-vanilla interest-rate swap, the notional principal is generally used to:
Correct
The notional principal is the reference amount used to calculate interest cash flows. In a standard interest-rate swap, it is generally not exchanged between parties; this distinguishes it from some currency swaps where principal exchanges may occur.
Incorrect
The notional principal is the reference amount used to calculate interest cash flows. In a standard interest-rate swap, it is generally not exchanged between parties; this distinguishes it from some currency swaps where principal exchanges may occur.
Unattempted
The notional principal is the reference amount used to calculate interest cash flows. In a standard interest-rate swap, it is generally not exchanged between parties; this distinguishes it from some currency swaps where principal exchanges may occur.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
Which feature commonly distinguishes a cross-currency swap from a plain-vanilla interest-rate swap?
Correct
A cross-currency swap exchanges cash flows in different currencies and may include exchanges and re-exchanges of principal, depending on the contract. A plain-vanilla interest-rate swap generally exchanges fixed and floating interest cash flows in the same currency without exchanging the notional principal.
Incorrect
A cross-currency swap exchanges cash flows in different currencies and may include exchanges and re-exchanges of principal, depending on the contract. A plain-vanilla interest-rate swap generally exchanges fixed and floating interest cash flows in the same currency without exchanging the notional principal.
Unattempted
A cross-currency swap exchanges cash flows in different currencies and may include exchanges and re-exchanges of principal, depending on the contract. A plain-vanilla interest-rate swap generally exchanges fixed and floating interest cash flows in the same currency without exchanging the notional principal.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
A company purchases the right, but not the obligation, to enter into an interest-rate swap at a future date on pre-agreed terms. This instrument is a:
Correct
A swaption is an option on a swap. The holder has the right, but not the obligation, to enter into the underlying swap under the agreed terms. It can be used to manage uncertainty about future borrowing or investment rates.
Incorrect
A swaption is an option on a swap. The holder has the right, but not the obligation, to enter into the underlying swap under the agreed terms. It can be used to manage uncertainty about future borrowing or investment rates.
Unattempted
A swaption is an option on a swap. The holder has the right, but not the obligation, to enter into the underlying swap under the agreed terms. It can be used to manage uncertainty about future borrowing or investment rates.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Why do futures contracts generally have lower bilateral counterparty risk than comparable uncollateralised forwards?
Correct
Futures are centrally cleared in many markets and use margining and daily mark-to-market, which limits accumulated unpaid exposure. This does not eliminate all risk: clearing members, the clearing house and market participants remain exposed to liquidity, operational and systemic risks.
Incorrect
Futures are centrally cleared in many markets and use margining and daily mark-to-market, which limits accumulated unpaid exposure. This does not eliminate all risk: clearing members, the clearing house and market participants remain exposed to liquidity, operational and systemic risks.
Unattempted
Futures are centrally cleared in many markets and use margining and daily mark-to-market, which limits accumulated unpaid exposure. This does not eliminate all risk: clearing members, the clearing house and market participants remain exposed to liquidity, operational and systemic risks.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
A bank hedges a bond exposure with a futures contract, but the bond and futures prices do not move in perfect lockstep. The remaining uncertainty is called:
Correct
Basis risk arises when the hedging instrument does not perfectly track the exposure being hedged. Differences in maturity, deliverable basket, benchmark or market liquidity can cause the hedge to be imperfect even if the broad market factor moves as expected.
Incorrect
Basis risk arises when the hedging instrument does not perfectly track the exposure being hedged. Differences in maturity, deliverable basket, benchmark or market liquidity can cause the hedge to be imperfect even if the broad market factor moves as expected.
Unattempted
Basis risk arises when the hedging instrument does not perfectly track the exposure being hedged. Differences in maturity, deliverable basket, benchmark or market liquidity can cause the hedge to be imperfect even if the broad market factor moves as expected.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
A futures position incurs daily losses as the market moves against the trader. What is the main implication of daily mark-to-market?
Correct
Daily mark-to-market settles gains and losses regularly through variation margin. A losing trader may need to provide additional funds promptly; failure to meet a margin call can lead to position close-out under clearing and broker rules. This reduces accumulated exposure but creates liquidity demands.
Incorrect
Daily mark-to-market settles gains and losses regularly through variation margin. A losing trader may need to provide additional funds promptly; failure to meet a margin call can lead to position close-out under clearing and broker rules. This reduces accumulated exposure but creates liquidity demands.
Unattempted
Daily mark-to-market settles gains and losses regularly through variation margin. A losing trader may need to provide additional funds promptly; failure to meet a margin call can lead to position close-out under clearing and broker rules. This reduces accumulated exposure but creates liquidity demands.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
Which statement best distinguishes hedging from speculation in derivatives?
Correct
Hedging aims to reduce an existing or anticipated exposure to an underlying risk. Speculation intentionally takes exposure in expectation of profit from market movements. Both can involve gains or losses, and a hedge may be imperfect or create new risks if poorly designed.
Incorrect
Hedging aims to reduce an existing or anticipated exposure to an underlying risk. Speculation intentionally takes exposure in expectation of profit from market movements. Both can involve gains or losses, and a hedge may be imperfect or create new risks if poorly designed.
Unattempted
Hedging aims to reduce an existing or anticipated exposure to an underlying risk. Speculation intentionally takes exposure in expectation of profit from market movements. Both can involve gains or losses, and a hedge may be imperfect or create new risks if poorly designed.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
A trader sells a futures contract at ₹800. At settlement, the futures price is ₹765. Ignoring transaction costs and contract multiplier, what is the gain per unit?
Correct
For a short futures position, the gain is entry price minus settlement price. Here, ₹800 − ₹765 = ₹35 per unit. The actual amount depends on contract size and transaction costs.
Incorrect
For a short futures position, the gain is entry price minus settlement price. Here, ₹800 − ₹765 = ₹35 per unit. The actual amount depends on contract size and transaction costs.
Unattempted
For a short futures position, the gain is entry price minus settlement price. Here, ₹800 − ₹765 = ₹35 per unit. The actual amount depends on contract size and transaction costs.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Which control is most appropriate before a bank enters into a new class of derivative product?
Correct
Before offering or trading a new derivative, the bank should ensure product approval, legal and documentation review, valuation capability, risk measurement, limits, operational readiness, accounting treatment, collateral/settlement arrangements and staff competence. Independent oversight is important because complex products can create risks that are not obvious from the initial cash outlay.
Incorrect
Before offering or trading a new derivative, the bank should ensure product approval, legal and documentation review, valuation capability, risk measurement, limits, operational readiness, accounting treatment, collateral/settlement arrangements and staff competence. Independent oversight is important because complex products can create risks that are not obvious from the initial cash outlay.
Unattempted
Before offering or trading a new derivative, the bank should ensure product approval, legal and documentation review, valuation capability, risk measurement, limits, operational readiness, accounting treatment, collateral/settlement arrangements and staff competence. Independent oversight is important because complex products can create risks that are not obvious from the initial cash outlay.