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Your results are here!! for" RISK MANAGEMENT MODULE E QUIZ 2 "
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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Why may a bank‘s accounting equity differ from its regulatory capital?
Correct
Regulatory capital is calculated under prudential rules and may include qualifying instruments beyond accounting equity, while requiring deductions and adjustments for items such as certain intangible assets or deferred tax assets. Therefore accounting equity and regulatory capital are related but not identical.
Incorrect
Regulatory capital is calculated under prudential rules and may include qualifying instruments beyond accounting equity, while requiring deductions and adjustments for items such as certain intangible assets or deferred tax assets. Therefore accounting equity and regulatory capital are related but not identical.
Unattempted
Regulatory capital is calculated under prudential rules and may include qualifying instruments beyond accounting equity, while requiring deductions and adjustments for items such as certain intangible assets or deferred tax assets. Therefore accounting equity and regulatory capital are related but not identical.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
Which statement best distinguishes Tier 1 capital from Tier 2 capital?
Correct
Tier 1 capital is intended to absorb losses on a going-concern basis and includes CET1 and qualifying Additional Tier 1 instruments. Tier 2 is supplementary capital that generally absorbs losses on a gone-concern basis, subject to eligibility criteria and applicable rules.
Incorrect
Tier 1 capital is intended to absorb losses on a going-concern basis and includes CET1 and qualifying Additional Tier 1 instruments. Tier 2 is supplementary capital that generally absorbs losses on a gone-concern basis, subject to eligibility criteria and applicable rules.
Unattempted
Tier 1 capital is intended to absorb losses on a going-concern basis and includes CET1 and qualifying Additional Tier 1 instruments. Tier 2 is supplementary capital that generally absorbs losses on a gone-concern basis, subject to eligibility criteria and applicable rules.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
What is the primary purpose of the Basel III leverage ratio?
Correct
The leverage ratio is a non-risk-based backstop that limits excessive leverage and complements risk-weighted capital ratios. It compares Tier 1 capital with a broad exposure measure that includes on-balance-sheet and specified off-balance-sheet items under the applicable rules.
Incorrect
The leverage ratio is a non-risk-based backstop that limits excessive leverage and complements risk-weighted capital ratios. It compares Tier 1 capital with a broad exposure measure that includes on-balance-sheet and specified off-balance-sheet items under the applicable rules.
Unattempted
The leverage ratio is a non-risk-based backstop that limits excessive leverage and complements risk-weighted capital ratios. It compares Tier 1 capital with a broad exposure measure that includes on-balance-sheet and specified off-balance-sheet items under the applicable rules.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Which statement best describes counterparty credit risk in derivatives transactions?
Correct
Counterparty credit risk is the risk that the other party to a transaction defaults before final settlement of the transaction‘s cash flows, leaving a replacement-cost or other exposure. Exposure can vary with market values and may be mitigated by netting and collateral if legally enforceable and recognised.
Incorrect
Counterparty credit risk is the risk that the other party to a transaction defaults before final settlement of the transaction‘s cash flows, leaving a replacement-cost or other exposure. Exposure can vary with market values and may be mitigated by netting and collateral if legally enforceable and recognised.
Unattempted
Counterparty credit risk is the risk that the other party to a transaction defaults before final settlement of the transaction‘s cash flows, leaving a replacement-cost or other exposure. Exposure can vary with market values and may be mitigated by netting and collateral if legally enforceable and recognised.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
How should an external credit assessment be used under the standardised credit-risk approach?
Correct
Recognised external credit assessments may be mapped to regulatory risk weights under the applicable framework, subject to eligibility, due diligence and rules on use of ratings. A rating does not remove the bank‘s responsibility for credit assessment and ongoing monitoring.
Incorrect
Recognised external credit assessments may be mapped to regulatory risk weights under the applicable framework, subject to eligibility, due diligence and rules on use of ratings. A rating does not remove the bank‘s responsibility for credit assessment and ongoing monitoring.
Unattempted
Recognised external credit assessments may be mapped to regulatory risk weights under the applicable framework, subject to eligibility, due diligence and rules on use of ratings. A rating does not remove the bank‘s responsibility for credit assessment and ongoing monitoring.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Why is it important to distinguish an issue-specific rating from an issuer rating?
Correct
An issue-specific rating may reflect the terms, seniority, security and structural features of a particular instrument, while an issuer rating assesses the general creditworthiness of the issuer. Applying an issue rating to other claims is permitted only as provided by applicable regulatory rules and rating methodology.
Incorrect
An issue-specific rating may reflect the terms, seniority, security and structural features of a particular instrument, while an issuer rating assesses the general creditworthiness of the issuer. Applying an issue rating to other claims is permitted only as provided by applicable regulatory rules and rating methodology.
Unattempted
An issue-specific rating may reflect the terms, seniority, security and structural features of a particular instrument, while an issuer rating assesses the general creditworthiness of the issuer. Applying an issue rating to other claims is permitted only as provided by applicable regulatory rules and rating methodology.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
A bank has an eligible off-balance-sheet commitment of ₹50 crore. If the applicable credit conversion factor is 20%, what is its credit-equivalent amount before applying the risk weight?
Correct
Credit-equivalent amount = nominal commitment × credit conversion factor = ₹50 crore × 20% = ₹10 crore. The applicable risk weight is then applied to the credit-equivalent exposure to calculate the RWA contribution, subject to the relevant rules.
Incorrect
Credit-equivalent amount = nominal commitment × credit conversion factor = ₹50 crore × 20% = ₹10 crore. The applicable risk weight is then applied to the credit-equivalent exposure to calculate the RWA contribution, subject to the relevant rules.
Unattempted
Credit-equivalent amount = nominal commitment × credit conversion factor = ₹50 crore × 20% = ₹10 crore. The applicable risk weight is then applied to the credit-equivalent exposure to calculate the RWA contribution, subject to the relevant rules.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Which types of exposure are generally within the scope of market-risk capital requirements?
Correct
Market-risk capital requirements cover losses arising from movements in market prices, including interest rates and equity prices in the trading book, foreign exchange and commodity prices, according to the applicable framework. The precise scope and calculation depend on regulatory definitions and rules.
Incorrect
Market-risk capital requirements cover losses arising from movements in market prices, including interest rates and equity prices in the trading book, foreign exchange and commodity prices, according to the applicable framework. The precise scope and calculation depend on regulatory definitions and rules.
Unattempted
Market-risk capital requirements cover losses arising from movements in market prices, including interest rates and equity prices in the trading book, foreign exchange and commodity prices, according to the applicable framework. The precise scope and calculation depend on regulatory definitions and rules.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
A bank holds trading-book bonds whose prices fall when market yields rise. Which risk is most directly being captured by market-risk capital requirements?
Correct
For fixed-income instruments, bond prices generally move inversely to yields. Trading-book interest-rate risk capital is intended to cover adverse movements in market rates and related price effects, measured under the applicable standardised or approved internal approach.
Incorrect
For fixed-income instruments, bond prices generally move inversely to yields. Trading-book interest-rate risk capital is intended to cover adverse movements in market rates and related price effects, measured under the applicable standardised or approved internal approach.
Unattempted
For fixed-income instruments, bond prices generally move inversely to yields. Trading-book interest-rate risk capital is intended to cover adverse movements in market rates and related price effects, measured under the applicable standardised or approved internal approach.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Under the Basel framework, operational risk is generally defined as the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or from external events. Which example fits this definition?
Correct
A payment-processing outage caused by a system failure is an operational-risk event because it arises from failed systems or processes. Credit losses from borrower default and market losses from price movements are different risk categories, although one event can have multiple consequences.
Incorrect
A payment-processing outage caused by a system failure is an operational-risk event because it arises from failed systems or processes. Credit losses from borrower default and market losses from price movements are different risk categories, although one event can have multiple consequences.
Unattempted
A payment-processing outage caused by a system failure is an operational-risk event because it arises from failed systems or processes. Credit losses from borrower default and market losses from price movements are different risk categories, although one event can have multiple consequences.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Under the traditional Basel II Basic Indicator Approach for operational-risk capital, the capital charge was generally calculated using:
Correct
Under the Basel II Basic Indicator Approach, the operational-risk capital charge was based on a fixed percentage (alpha, 15%) of positive annual gross income averaged over the prescribed three-year period, subject to the framework‘s detailed rules. Basel reforms later revised the operational-risk framework, so exam answers should distinguish Basel II methodology from newer implementations.
Incorrect
Under the Basel II Basic Indicator Approach, the operational-risk capital charge was based on a fixed percentage (alpha, 15%) of positive annual gross income averaged over the prescribed three-year period, subject to the framework‘s detailed rules. Basel reforms later revised the operational-risk framework, so exam answers should distinguish Basel II methodology from newer implementations.
Unattempted
Under the Basel II Basic Indicator Approach, the operational-risk capital charge was based on a fixed percentage (alpha, 15%) of positive annual gross income averaged over the prescribed three-year period, subject to the framework‘s detailed rules. Basel reforms later revised the operational-risk framework, so exam answers should distinguish Basel II methodology from newer implementations.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
Why should candidates distinguish the Basel II Standardised Approach from the later Basel operational-risk framework?
Correct
Basel II included business-line-based approaches such as the Standardised Approach and Advanced Measurement Approaches. Basel III reforms consolidated the framework into the Standardised Measurement Approach (SMA) for operational-risk capital, subject to implementation by national authorities. Terminology and applicable dates matter.
Incorrect
Basel II included business-line-based approaches such as the Standardised Approach and Advanced Measurement Approaches. Basel III reforms consolidated the framework into the Standardised Measurement Approach (SMA) for operational-risk capital, subject to implementation by national authorities. Terminology and applicable dates matter.
Unattempted
Basel II included business-line-based approaches such as the Standardised Approach and Advanced Measurement Approaches. Basel III reforms consolidated the framework into the Standardised Measurement Approach (SMA) for operational-risk capital, subject to implementation by national authorities. Terminology and applicable dates matter.
Hint
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
Under Basel Pillar 2, what is the primary purpose of the Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process (ICAAP)?
Correct
ICAAP requires a bank to assess its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile, strategy and internal controls, including risks that may not be fully captured by Pillar 1. Supervisors review the process and may require remedial action or additional capital where appropriate.
Incorrect
ICAAP requires a bank to assess its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile, strategy and internal controls, including risks that may not be fully captured by Pillar 1. Supervisors review the process and may require remedial action or additional capital where appropriate.
Unattempted
ICAAP requires a bank to assess its overall capital adequacy in relation to its risk profile, strategy and internal controls, including risks that may not be fully captured by Pillar 1. Supervisors review the process and may require remedial action or additional capital where appropriate.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
What is the main regulatory value of stress testing?
Correct
Stress testing assesses the impact of severe but plausible adverse conditions on capital, liquidity, earnings and risk concentrations. It complements normal forecasts and historical models and can inform capital planning, contingency actions and supervisory dialogue.
Incorrect
Stress testing assesses the impact of severe but plausible adverse conditions on capital, liquidity, earnings and risk concentrations. It complements normal forecasts and historical models and can inform capital planning, contingency actions and supervisory dialogue.
Unattempted
Stress testing assesses the impact of severe but plausible adverse conditions on capital, liquidity, earnings and risk concentrations. It complements normal forecasts and historical models and can inform capital planning, contingency actions and supervisory dialogue.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
Under Basel Pillar 3, market discipline is promoted mainly through:
Correct
Pillar 3 promotes transparency by requiring disclosures that enable market participants to assess a bank‘s risk profile, capital adequacy and risk-management practices. It complements minimum capital rules and supervisory review rather than replacing them.
Incorrect
Pillar 3 promotes transparency by requiring disclosures that enable market participants to assess a bank‘s risk profile, capital adequacy and risk-management practices. It complements minimum capital rules and supervisory review rather than replacing them.
Unattempted
Pillar 3 promotes transparency by requiring disclosures that enable market participants to assess a bank‘s risk profile, capital adequacy and risk-management practices. It complements minimum capital rules and supervisory review rather than replacing them.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
The Basel III Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR) is designed to ensure a bank holds sufficient high-quality liquid assets to cover net cash outflows over which stress horizon?
Correct
The LCR is a short-term liquidity standard designed to ensure an adequate stock of unencumbered high-quality liquid assets to cover net cash outflows over a 30-calendar-day stress scenario, subject to the applicable regulatory framework and national implementation.
Incorrect
The LCR is a short-term liquidity standard designed to ensure an adequate stock of unencumbered high-quality liquid assets to cover net cash outflows over a 30-calendar-day stress scenario, subject to the applicable regulatory framework and national implementation.
Unattempted
The LCR is a short-term liquidity standard designed to ensure an adequate stock of unencumbered high-quality liquid assets to cover net cash outflows over a 30-calendar-day stress scenario, subject to the applicable regulatory framework and national implementation.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
What is the primary purpose of the Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR)?
Correct
The NSFR is a structural liquidity standard intended to promote a stable funding profile over a one-year horizon. It compares available stable funding with required stable funding, reducing excessive reliance on unstable short-term funding for longer-term assets.
Incorrect
The NSFR is a structural liquidity standard intended to promote a stable funding profile over a one-year horizon. It compares available stable funding with required stable funding, reducing excessive reliance on unstable short-term funding for longer-term assets.
Unattempted
The NSFR is a structural liquidity standard intended to promote a stable funding profile over a one-year horizon. It compares available stable funding with required stable funding, reducing excessive reliance on unstable short-term funding for longer-term assets.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
What is the broad purpose of a Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) framework used by banking supervisors?
Correct
PCA frameworks establish supervisory triggers and graduated actions when a bank‘s financial indicators—often capital and other prudential measures—deteriorate. The exact trigger metrics and restrictions depend on the applicable national framework and current supervisory rules.
Incorrect
PCA frameworks establish supervisory triggers and graduated actions when a bank‘s financial indicators—often capital and other prudential measures—deteriorate. The exact trigger metrics and restrictions depend on the applicable national framework and current supervisory rules.
Unattempted
PCA frameworks establish supervisory triggers and graduated actions when a bank‘s financial indicators—often capital and other prudential measures—deteriorate. The exact trigger metrics and restrictions depend on the applicable national framework and current supervisory rules.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Risk-based supervision differs from a purely uniform supervisory approach because it:
Correct
Risk-based supervision allocates supervisory attention according to the nature, scale and potential impact of risks at an institution. It focuses more intensively on material risks and the quality of controls while considering the bank‘s systemic importance and risk profile.
Incorrect
Risk-based supervision allocates supervisory attention according to the nature, scale and potential impact of risks at an institution. It focuses more intensively on material risks and the quality of controls while considering the bank‘s systemic importance and risk profile.
Unattempted
Risk-based supervision allocates supervisory attention according to the nature, scale and potential impact of risks at an institution. It focuses more intensively on material risks and the quality of controls while considering the bank‘s systemic importance and risk profile.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
What is the defining feature of risk-based internal audit in a bank?
Correct
Risk-based internal audit plans its work according to the risk significance of activities, controls and exposures. Higher-risk areas receive greater audit attention, while the function maintains independence and provides assurance on governance, risk management and internal controls.
Incorrect
Risk-based internal audit plans its work according to the risk significance of activities, controls and exposures. Higher-risk areas receive greater audit attention, while the function maintains independence and provides assurance on governance, risk management and internal controls.
Unattempted
Risk-based internal audit plans its work according to the risk significance of activities, controls and exposures. Higher-risk areas receive greater audit attention, while the function maintains independence and provides assurance on governance, risk management and internal controls.
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