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Your results are here!! for" INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY & DIGITAL BANKING MODULE B QUIZ 1 "
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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
A loan table stores a customer_id that refers to the customer table‘s primary key. The customer_id in the loan table is typically a:
Correct
A foreign key references a candidate/primary key in another table (or sometimes the same table) and helps enforce referential integrity. It prevents a loan record from referring to a nonexistent customer when the constraint is properly enforced.
Incorrect
A foreign key references a candidate/primary key in another table (or sometimes the same table) and helps enforce referential integrity. It prevents a loan record from referring to a nonexistent customer when the constraint is properly enforced.
Unattempted
A foreign key references a candidate/primary key in another table (or sometimes the same table) and helps enforce referential integrity. It prevents a loan record from referring to a nonexistent customer when the constraint is properly enforced.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
Which SQL clause is normally used to filter individual rows before grouping and aggregation?
Correct
WHERE filters rows that meet a condition before grouping. HAVING filters groups after GROUP BY, often based on aggregate values. For example, WHERE status=‘ACTIVE‘ filters rows, while HAVING COUNT(*) > 5 filters groups.
Incorrect
WHERE filters rows that meet a condition before grouping. HAVING filters groups after GROUP BY, often based on aggregate values. For example, WHERE status=‘ACTIVE‘ filters rows, while HAVING COUNT(*) > 5 filters groups.
Unattempted
WHERE filters rows that meet a condition before grouping. HAVING filters groups after GROUP BY, often based on aggregate values. For example, WHERE status=‘ACTIVE‘ filters rows, while HAVING COUNT(*) > 5 filters groups.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
Oracle Database is best described as:
Correct
Oracle Database is a relational database management system (with object-relational capabilities) used to store and manage structured data. It supports SQL and database features such as transactions, security, backup and recovery, depending on edition and configuration.
Incorrect
Oracle Database is a relational database management system (with object-relational capabilities) used to store and manage structured data. It supports SQL and database features such as transactions, security, backup and recovery, depending on edition and configuration.
Unattempted
Oracle Database is a relational database management system (with object-relational capabilities) used to store and manage structured data. It supports SQL and database features such as transactions, security, backup and recovery, depending on edition and configuration.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
A bank‘s system captures deposits, withdrawals and fund transfers as they occur. Which type of information system primarily supports these routine operational transactions?
Correct
A Transaction Processing System (TPS) records and processes routine, day-to-day transactions. It supports operational activities such as deposits, withdrawals, payments and account updates, and often supplies transaction data to higher-level reporting systems.
Incorrect
A Transaction Processing System (TPS) records and processes routine, day-to-day transactions. It supports operational activities such as deposits, withdrawals, payments and account updates, and often supplies transaction data to higher-level reporting systems.
Unattempted
A Transaction Processing System (TPS) records and processes routine, day-to-day transactions. It supports operational activities such as deposits, withdrawals, payments and account updates, and often supplies transaction data to higher-level reporting systems.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
A branch manager receives a weekly report comparing deposits, advances and overdue accounts against targets. Which system most directly provides this type of structured management report?
Correct
A Management Information System (MIS) converts operational data into periodic, summarised reports for planning, monitoring and control by managers. The report helps compare actual performance with targets and identify exceptions.
Incorrect
A Management Information System (MIS) converts operational data into periodic, summarised reports for planning, monitoring and control by managers. The report helps compare actual performance with targets and identify exceptions.
Unattempted
A Management Information System (MIS) converts operational data into periodic, summarised reports for planning, monitoring and control by managers. The report helps compare actual performance with targets and identify exceptions.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
A credit manager uses a model to compare how a borrower‘s repayment capacity changes under different interest-rate and income assumptions. Which system is most suitable?
Correct
A Decision Support System (DSS) combines data and analytical models to assist semi-structured decisions. What-if analysis allows a manager to vary assumptions and compare possible outcomes rather than merely viewing a fixed report.
Incorrect
A Decision Support System (DSS) combines data and analytical models to assist semi-structured decisions. What-if analysis allows a manager to vary assumptions and compare possible outcomes rather than merely viewing a fixed report.
Unattempted
A Decision Support System (DSS) combines data and analytical models to assist semi-structured decisions. What-if analysis allows a manager to vary assumptions and compare possible outcomes rather than merely viewing a fixed report.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Senior management needs a dashboard of key indicators, trends and exceptions across the bank, with the ability to drill down into summaries. Which system best fits this need?
Correct
An Executive Information System (EIS), often called an Executive Support System, presents high-level internal and external information in an accessible format for senior executives. Dashboards, trends and exception reporting support strategic monitoring.
Incorrect
An Executive Information System (EIS), often called an Executive Support System, presents high-level internal and external information in an accessible format for senior executives. Dashboards, trends and exception reporting support strategic monitoring.
Unattempted
An Executive Information System (EIS), often called an Executive Support System, presents high-level internal and external information in an accessible format for senior executives. Dashboards, trends and exception reporting support strategic monitoring.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
A committee in several locations uses shared electronic brainstorming, anonymous idea ranking and voting to decide a technology project. This is an example of:
Correct
A Group Decision Support System (GDSS) uses collaborative tools to help a group structure discussion, generate ideas, evaluate alternatives and reach decisions. Features such as anonymous input and electronic voting can reduce meeting and participation barriers.
Incorrect
A Group Decision Support System (GDSS) uses collaborative tools to help a group structure discussion, generate ideas, evaluate alternatives and reach decisions. Features such as anonymous input and electronic voting can reduce meeting and participation barriers.
Unattempted
A Group Decision Support System (GDSS) uses collaborative tools to help a group structure discussion, generate ideas, evaluate alternatives and reach decisions. Features such as anonymous input and electronic voting can reduce meeting and participation barriers.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Which sequence best represents how operational data commonly support higher-level management decisions?
Correct
Operational systems capture detailed transactions. MIS commonly aggregates or summarises that data for management, while DSS/EIS tools can use reports, models and broader information to support analysis and strategic decisions. Real architectures vary, but operational data are a common foundation.
Incorrect
Operational systems capture detailed transactions. MIS commonly aggregates or summarises that data for management, while DSS/EIS tools can use reports, models and broader information to support analysis and strategic decisions. Real architectures vary, but operational data are a common foundation.
Unattempted
Operational systems capture detailed transactions. MIS commonly aggregates or summarises that data for management, while DSS/EIS tools can use reports, models and broader information to support analysis and strategic decisions. Real architectures vary, but operational data are a common foundation.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
A bank begins a core system upgrade without defining deliverables, boundaries or acceptance criteria. Which project-management artefact should be clarified first to reduce scope ambiguity?
Correct
A project scope statement defines the work and boundaries, major deliverables, exclusions and acceptance criteria. Clear scope provides a basis for scheduling, estimating, assigning responsibilities and managing change.
Incorrect
A project scope statement defines the work and boundaries, major deliverables, exclusions and acceptance criteria. Clear scope provides a basis for scheduling, estimating, assigning responsibilities and managing change.
Unattempted
A project scope statement defines the work and boundaries, major deliverables, exclusions and acceptance criteria. Clear scope provides a basis for scheduling, estimating, assigning responsibilities and managing change.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
In a project network, the critical path is the sequence of activities that:
Correct
The critical path is the longest-duration path through the project network and determines the shortest possible project completion time. Activities on it have zero total float under the standard schedule model, so delays can delay the whole project unless the schedule is changed.
Incorrect
The critical path is the longest-duration path through the project network and determines the shortest possible project completion time. Activities on it have zero total float under the standard schedule model, so delays can delay the whole project unless the schedule is changed.
Unattempted
The critical path is the longest-duration path through the project network and determines the shortest possible project completion time. Activities on it have zero total float under the standard schedule model, so delays can delay the whole project unless the schedule is changed.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
A migration team identifies that incomplete customer data could cause failed conversion. What is the most appropriate project response?
Correct
Project risk management involves identifying, assessing and responding to risks. For data migration, a practical response may include profiling and cleansing data, rehearsing conversion, reconciliation, rollback plans and clear go/no-go criteria.
Incorrect
Project risk management involves identifying, assessing and responding to risks. For data migration, a practical response may include profiling and cleansing data, rehearsing conversion, reconciliation, rollback plans and clear go/no-go criteria.
Unattempted
Project risk management involves identifying, assessing and responding to risks. For data migration, a practical response may include profiling and cleansing data, rehearsing conversion, reconciliation, rollback plans and clear go/no-go criteria.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
During system development, a stakeholder asks for a major new feature after scope and schedule have been approved. What should the project manager normally do?
Correct
A formal change-control process records the request, assesses impact on scope, cost, schedule, risk and benefits, and obtains approval from the appropriate authority before updating the baseline. This helps prevent uncontrolled scope creep.
Incorrect
A formal change-control process records the request, assesses impact on scope, cost, schedule, risk and benefits, and obtains approval from the appropriate authority before updating the baseline. This helps prevent uncontrolled scope creep.
Unattempted
A formal change-control process records the request, assesses impact on scope, cost, schedule, risk and benefits, and obtains approval from the appropriate authority before updating the baseline. This helps prevent uncontrolled scope creep.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
What is the central purpose of the Capability Maturity Model (CMM) in software/process improvement?
Correct
CMM describes levels of process maturity and helps organisations assess and improve the repeatability, management and optimisation of their processes. It is a framework for process capability improvement, not a software programming language or project schedule.
Incorrect
CMM describes levels of process maturity and helps organisations assess and improve the repeatability, management and optimisation of their processes. It is a framework for process capability improvement, not a software programming language or project schedule.
Unattempted
CMM describes levels of process maturity and helps organisations assess and improve the repeatability, management and optimisation of their processes. It is a framework for process capability improvement, not a software programming language or project schedule.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
An organisation‘s software processes are documented, standardised across projects and tailored within defined organisational guidelines. In the classic five-level CMM, this most closely corresponds to which level?
Correct
In the classic five-level Software CMM, Level 3 is Defined: processes are documented, standardised and integrated into an organisation-wide standard process. Level 2 is Repeatable, Level 4 is Managed quantitatively, and Level 5 is Optimising.
Incorrect
In the classic five-level Software CMM, Level 3 is Defined: processes are documented, standardised and integrated into an organisation-wide standard process. Level 2 is Repeatable, Level 4 is Managed quantitatively, and Level 5 is Optimising.
Unattempted
In the classic five-level Software CMM, Level 3 is Defined: processes are documented, standardised and integrated into an organisation-wide standard process. Level 2 is Repeatable, Level 4 is Managed quantitatively, and Level 5 is Optimising.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
Which design choice most directly reduces the risk that a single power component failure will stop a bank‘s data centre?
Correct
Redundant power paths and components—such as appropriately designed UPS systems, generators and dual power feeds—reduce single points of failure. Redundancy must be designed, tested and maintained; it does not eliminate every outage risk.
Incorrect
Redundant power paths and components—such as appropriately designed UPS systems, generators and dual power feeds—reduce single points of failure. Redundancy must be designed, tested and maintained; it does not eliminate every outage risk.
Unattempted
Redundant power paths and components—such as appropriately designed UPS systems, generators and dual power feeds—reduce single points of failure. Redundancy must be designed, tested and maintained; it does not eliminate every outage risk.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Why are temperature and humidity controls important in a data centre?
Correct
Servers and networking equipment generate heat and are designed to operate within specified environmental ranges. Proper cooling and humidity management help reduce overheating, condensation, electrostatic discharge risks and hardware failures.
Incorrect
Servers and networking equipment generate heat and are designed to operate within specified environmental ranges. Proper cooling and humidity management help reduce overheating, condensation, electrostatic discharge risks and hardware failures.
Unattempted
Servers and networking equipment generate heat and are designed to operate within specified environmental ranges. Proper cooling and humidity management help reduce overheating, condensation, electrostatic discharge risks and hardware failures.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
Which statement best describes the primary role of a Database Management System (DBMS)?
Correct
A DBMS defines, stores, retrieves and manages data while supporting controlled access, integrity, concurrency and recovery. It provides a managed layer between applications/users and the underlying database.
Incorrect
A DBMS defines, stores, retrieves and manages data while supporting controlled access, integrity, concurrency and recovery. It provides a managed layer between applications/users and the underlying database.
Unattempted
A DBMS defines, stores, retrieves and manages data while supporting controlled access, integrity, concurrency and recovery. It provides a managed layer between applications/users and the underlying database.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
In a relational database, data are primarily organised as:
Correct
A relational database represents data in relations, commonly implemented as tables with rows (tuples) and columns (attributes). Keys and constraints define relationships and help maintain data integrity.
Incorrect
A relational database represents data in relations, commonly implemented as tables with rows (tuples) and columns (attributes). Keys and constraints define relationships and help maintain data integrity.
Unattempted
A relational database represents data in relations, commonly implemented as tables with rows (tuples) and columns (attributes). Keys and constraints define relationships and help maintain data integrity.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
What is the main purpose of a primary key in a relational table?
Correct
A primary key uniquely identifies each row in a table and must be unique and non-null. A table normally has one primary-key constraint, which may consist of one column or multiple columns (a composite key).
Incorrect
A primary key uniquely identifies each row in a table and must be unique and non-null. A table normally has one primary-key constraint, which may consist of one column or multiple columns (a composite key).
Unattempted
A primary key uniquely identifies each row in a table and must be unique and non-null. A table normally has one primary-key constraint, which may consist of one column or multiple columns (a composite key).
Hint
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