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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, which description best captures ‘proceeds of crime‘?
Correct
PMLA focuses on property derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, from criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence, including the value of such property where applicable. A large deposit alone is not automatically proceeds of crime; it must be assessed against the statutory definition and facts.
Incorrect
PMLA focuses on property derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, from criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence, including the value of such property where applicable. A large deposit alone is not automatically proceeds of crime; it must be assessed against the statutory definition and facts.
Unattempted
PMLA focuses on property derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, from criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence, including the value of such property where applicable. A large deposit alone is not automatically proceeds of crime; it must be assessed against the statutory definition and facts.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
Which conduct most directly falls within the statutory concept of money laundering under PMLA?
Correct
The offence concerns involvement in processes or activities connected with proceeds of crime, including concealment, possession, acquisition, use, or projecting/claiming it as untainted, subject to the Act‘s wording and applicable judicial interpretation. Ordinary banking transactions are not offences by themselves.
Incorrect
The offence concerns involvement in processes or activities connected with proceeds of crime, including concealment, possession, acquisition, use, or projecting/claiming it as untainted, subject to the Act‘s wording and applicable judicial interpretation. Ordinary banking transactions are not offences by themselves.
Unattempted
The offence concerns involvement in processes or activities connected with proceeds of crime, including concealment, possession, acquisition, use, or projecting/claiming it as untainted, subject to the Act‘s wording and applicable judicial interpretation. Ordinary banking transactions are not offences by themselves.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
A bank is a ‘reporting entity‘ under PMLA. Which action is consistent with its statutory obligations?
Correct
Banks and other reporting entities must maintain prescribed records, verify client identity, preserve records for statutory periods, and furnish prescribed information to the Director/competent authority. Confidentiality and lawful disclosure requirements still apply; indiscriminate disclosure is not permitted.
Incorrect
Banks and other reporting entities must maintain prescribed records, verify client identity, preserve records for statutory periods, and furnish prescribed information to the Director/competent authority. Confidentiality and lawful disclosure requirements still apply; indiscriminate disclosure is not permitted.
Unattempted
Banks and other reporting entities must maintain prescribed records, verify client identity, preserve records for statutory periods, and furnish prescribed information to the Director/competent authority. Confidentiality and lawful disclosure requirements still apply; indiscriminate disclosure is not permitted.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
For PMLA record-keeping, which statement best reflects the general statutory rule for transaction records?
Correct
Under the PMLA framework, transaction records are generally required to be maintained for five years from the date of the transaction. Identity and account-file records have separate retention triggers, including the business relationship ending or account closure, as prescribed. Banks should follow the current rules and directions for the specific record category.
Incorrect
Under the PMLA framework, transaction records are generally required to be maintained for five years from the date of the transaction. Identity and account-file records have separate retention triggers, including the business relationship ending or account closure, as prescribed. Banks should follow the current rules and directions for the specific record category.
Unattempted
Under the PMLA framework, transaction records are generally required to be maintained for five years from the date of the transaction. Identity and account-file records have separate retention triggers, including the business relationship ending or account closure, as prescribed. Banks should follow the current rules and directions for the specific record category.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Under the PMLA framework, records relating to client identity and account files are generally retained for what period after the business relationship ends or the account is closed?
Correct
Identity and account-file records are generally retained for at least five years after the business relationship has ended or the account has been closed, as prescribed. This is distinct from the five-year period measured from the date of each transaction for transaction records.
Incorrect
Identity and account-file records are generally retained for at least five years after the business relationship has ended or the account has been closed, as prescribed. This is distinct from the five-year period measured from the date of each transaction for transaction records.
Unattempted
Identity and account-file records are generally retained for at least five years after the business relationship has ended or the account has been closed, as prescribed. This is distinct from the five-year period measured from the date of each transaction for transaction records.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
A bank detects a transaction that appears unusually complex and lacks an apparent lawful purpose. What is the most appropriate compliance response?
Correct
Suspicious transaction reporting is based on suspicion and prescribed reporting criteria; a criminal conviction is not a prerequisite. The bank must follow applicable reporting timelines and confidentiality rules and must not ‘tip off‘ the customer. Account restrictions or freezing require the appropriate legal or regulatory basis.
Incorrect
Suspicious transaction reporting is based on suspicion and prescribed reporting criteria; a criminal conviction is not a prerequisite. The bank must follow applicable reporting timelines and confidentiality rules and must not ‘tip off‘ the customer. Account restrictions or freezing require the appropriate legal or regulatory basis.
Unattempted
Suspicious transaction reporting is based on suspicion and prescribed reporting criteria; a criminal conviction is not a prerequisite. The bank must follow applicable reporting timelines and confidentiality rules and must not ‘tip off‘ the customer. Account restrictions or freezing require the appropriate legal or regulatory basis.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
When is enhanced due diligence most appropriately applied by a bank?
Correct
Enhanced due diligence is risk-based and applies in circumstances specified by law, rules, and current RBI KYC directions. It supplements rather than replaces customer identification and ongoing monitoring. Banks should avoid treating a single generic trigger as the only circumstance requiring enhanced scrutiny.
Incorrect
Enhanced due diligence is risk-based and applies in circumstances specified by law, rules, and current RBI KYC directions. It supplements rather than replaces customer identification and ongoing monitoring. Banks should avoid treating a single generic trigger as the only circumstance requiring enhanced scrutiny.
Unattempted
Enhanced due diligence is risk-based and applies in circumstances specified by law, rules, and current RBI KYC directions. It supplements rather than replaces customer identification and ongoing monitoring. Banks should avoid treating a single generic trigger as the only circumstance requiring enhanced scrutiny.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Under PMLA, prescribed information from reporting entities is furnished to which statutory functionary?
Correct
The PMLA framework assigns relevant receipt and enforcement functions to the Director and other designated authorities. Reporting entities must follow the applicable rules and reporting formats; information is not ordinarily routed to unrelated bodies such as municipal authorities or employers.
Incorrect
The PMLA framework assigns relevant receipt and enforcement functions to the Director and other designated authorities. Reporting entities must follow the applicable rules and reporting formats; information is not ordinarily routed to unrelated bodies such as municipal authorities or employers.
Unattempted
The PMLA framework assigns relevant receipt and enforcement functions to the Director and other designated authorities. Reporting entities must follow the applicable rules and reporting formats; information is not ordinarily routed to unrelated bodies such as municipal authorities or employers.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Which approach best supports ongoing monitoring under a bank‘s AML programme?
Correct
Ongoing monitoring checks whether transactions are consistent with the bank‘s knowledge of the customer, business, risk profile, and source of funds. Suspicious activity can occur through cash, transfers, digital channels, trade, or other products, so monitoring should be proportionate to risk and cover relevant channels.
Incorrect
Ongoing monitoring checks whether transactions are consistent with the bank‘s knowledge of the customer, business, risk profile, and source of funds. Suspicious activity can occur through cash, transfers, digital channels, trade, or other products, so monitoring should be proportionate to risk and cover relevant channels.
Unattempted
Ongoing monitoring checks whether transactions are consistent with the bank‘s knowledge of the customer, business, risk profile, and source of funds. Suspicious activity can occur through cash, transfers, digital channels, trade, or other products, so monitoring should be proportionate to risk and cover relevant channels.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
Why should bank staff avoid informing a customer that a suspicious transaction report has been filed?
Correct
Tipping off can undermine detection and investigation and is restricted under the applicable AML framework. A suspicious transaction report does not itself establish guilt or automatically require account closure. Staff should follow internal escalation and lawful customer communication procedures.
Incorrect
Tipping off can undermine detection and investigation and is restricted under the applicable AML framework. A suspicious transaction report does not itself establish guilt or automatically require account closure. Staff should follow internal escalation and lawful customer communication procedures.
Unattempted
Tipping off can undermine detection and investigation and is restricted under the applicable AML framework. A suspicious transaction report does not itself establish guilt or automatically require account closure. Staff should follow internal escalation and lawful customer communication procedures.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Which set consists of the three instruments expressly covered by the core definition in Section 13 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
Correct
Section 13 identifies a promissory note, bill of exchange, or cheque payable either to order or to bearer as a negotiable instrument. Other banking documents may have commercial or evidentiary value but are not included in this statutory trio merely because they are used in banking.
Incorrect
Section 13 identifies a promissory note, bill of exchange, or cheque payable either to order or to bearer as a negotiable instrument. Other banking documents may have commercial or evidentiary value but are not included in this statutory trio merely because they are used in banking.
Unattempted
Section 13 identifies a promissory note, bill of exchange, or cheque payable either to order or to bearer as a negotiable instrument. Other banking documents may have commercial or evidentiary value but are not included in this statutory trio merely because they are used in banking.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
In a cheque transaction, who is the drawer?
Correct
The drawer is the person who draws or makes the cheque. The drawee is the bank directed to pay it, while the payee is the person designated to receive payment. Correctly distinguishing these roles is important for liability and statutory notice questions.
Incorrect
The drawer is the person who draws or makes the cheque. The drawee is the bank directed to pay it, while the payee is the person designated to receive payment. Correctly distinguishing these roles is important for liability and statutory notice questions.
Unattempted
The drawer is the person who draws or makes the cheque. The drawee is the bank directed to pay it, while the payee is the person designated to receive payment. Correctly distinguishing these roles is important for liability and statutory notice questions.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
A customer issues a cheque on their bank account. Which party is the drawee?
Correct
The drawee of a cheque is the bank on which it is drawn and which is directed to pay it. The customer is the drawer, and the payee is the intended recipient. A collecting bank is a separate role and is not automatically the drawee.
Incorrect
The drawee of a cheque is the bank on which it is drawn and which is directed to pay it. The customer is the drawer, and the payee is the intended recipient. A collecting bank is a separate role and is not automatically the drawee.
Unattempted
The drawee of a cheque is the bank on which it is drawn and which is directed to pay it. The customer is the drawer, and the payee is the intended recipient. A collecting bank is a separate role and is not automatically the drawee.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
What is the principal effect of a general crossing on a cheque?
Correct
A general crossing ordinarily requires payment to be made to a banker, subject to the Act‘s provisions. Crossing is a payment safeguard; it does not cancel the cheque or make it valid indefinitely. Cheque validity and other applicable requirements remain relevant.
Incorrect
A general crossing ordinarily requires payment to be made to a banker, subject to the Act‘s provisions. Crossing is a payment safeguard; it does not cancel the cheque or make it valid indefinitely. Cheque validity and other applicable requirements remain relevant.
Unattempted
A general crossing ordinarily requires payment to be made to a banker, subject to the Act‘s provisions. Crossing is a payment safeguard; it does not cancel the cheque or make it valid indefinitely. Cheque validity and other applicable requirements remain relevant.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
What is the practical banking significance of marking a cheque ‘A/C Payee‘?
Correct
An account-payee crossing is a restrictive banking instruction/practice intended to route proceeds to the named payee‘s account. It does not guarantee funds or remove the collecting bank‘s duties. Its effect should be understood with the Act, case law, and applicable banking practice.
Incorrect
An account-payee crossing is a restrictive banking instruction/practice intended to route proceeds to the named payee‘s account. It does not guarantee funds or remove the collecting bank‘s duties. Its effect should be understood with the Act, case law, and applicable banking practice.
Unattempted
An account-payee crossing is a restrictive banking instruction/practice intended to route proceeds to the named payee‘s account. It does not guarantee funds or remove the collecting bank‘s duties. Its effect should be understood with the Act, case law, and applicable banking practice.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
A cheque‘s amount is altered after execution without the drawer‘s consent. What is the general consequence under the Negotiable Instruments Act?
Correct
Section 87 generally renders an instrument void against a party who did not consent to a material alteration, subject to exceptions such as an alteration made to carry out the parties‘ common intention or an alteration authorized by the Act. Changes to amount, date, or payment terms can be material.
Incorrect
Section 87 generally renders an instrument void against a party who did not consent to a material alteration, subject to exceptions such as an alteration made to carry out the parties‘ common intention or an alteration authorized by the Act. Changes to amount, date, or payment terms can be material.
Unattempted
Section 87 generally renders an instrument void against a party who did not consent to a material alteration, subject to exceptions such as an alteration made to carry out the parties‘ common intention or an alteration authorized by the Act. Changes to amount, date, or payment terms can be material.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Under Section 10 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, when is payment in due course broadly relevant to a paying banker?
Correct
Payment in due course is a statutory concept requiring good faith, absence of negligence, and payment according to the apparent tenor of the instrument to a person in possession under the relevant circumstances. It is not a blanket immunity from all forged or irregular instruments.
Incorrect
Payment in due course is a statutory concept requiring good faith, absence of negligence, and payment according to the apparent tenor of the instrument to a person in possession under the relevant circumstances. It is not a blanket immunity from all forged or irregular instruments.
Unattempted
Payment in due course is a statutory concept requiring good faith, absence of negligence, and payment according to the apparent tenor of the instrument to a person in possession under the relevant circumstances. It is not a blanket immunity from all forged or irregular instruments.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
Section 131 protection for a collecting banker is generally associated with collection of which cheque?
Correct
Section 131 provides qualified protection to a banker collecting a crossed cheque for a customer, provided the statutory conditions, including good faith and absence of negligence, are met. It is not absolute protection and does not excuse negligent customer due diligence or collection.
Incorrect
Section 131 provides qualified protection to a banker collecting a crossed cheque for a customer, provided the statutory conditions, including good faith and absence of negligence, are met. It is not absolute protection and does not excuse negligent customer due diligence or collection.
Unattempted
Section 131 provides qualified protection to a banker collecting a crossed cheque for a customer, provided the statutory conditions, including good faith and absence of negligence, are met. It is not absolute protection and does not excuse negligent customer due diligence or collection.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
For an offence under Section 138, the payee or holder in due course must generally issue a written demand notice within what period after receiving information of dishonour from the bank?
Correct
Section 138 requires the payee or holder in due course to make a written demand within 30 days of receiving information from the bank regarding return of the cheque unpaid. The remaining statutory steps and timelines, including the drawer‘s payment window, must also be satisfied.
Incorrect
Section 138 requires the payee or holder in due course to make a written demand within 30 days of receiving information from the bank regarding return of the cheque unpaid. The remaining statutory steps and timelines, including the drawer‘s payment window, must also be satisfied.
Unattempted
Section 138 requires the payee or holder in due course to make a written demand within 30 days of receiving information from the bank regarding return of the cheque unpaid. The remaining statutory steps and timelines, including the drawer‘s payment window, must also be satisfied.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
After receiving a valid Section 138 demand notice, what is the general period given to the drawer to make payment before the cause of action for complaint arises?
Correct
The drawer is generally allowed 15 days from receipt of the demand notice to pay the cheque amount. If payment is not made, the cause of action arises thereafter, and the complaint must be filed within the separate statutory period, subject to the court‘s power to condone delay.
Incorrect
The drawer is generally allowed 15 days from receipt of the demand notice to pay the cheque amount. If payment is not made, the cause of action arises thereafter, and the complaint must be filed within the separate statutory period, subject to the court‘s power to condone delay.
Unattempted
The drawer is generally allowed 15 days from receipt of the demand notice to pay the cheque amount. If payment is not made, the cause of action arises thereafter, and the complaint must be filed within the separate statutory period, subject to the court‘s power to condone delay.