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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
A food company acquires an unrelated insurance business. This is generally a: (Practice variation 5: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
A conglomerate merger combines businesses in unrelated industries; diversification alone does not guarantee value creation. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
A conglomerate merger combines businesses in unrelated industries; diversification alone does not guarantee value creation. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
A conglomerate merger combines businesses in unrelated industries; diversification alone does not guarantee value creation. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
Acquirer shares trade at ₹240; target shares at ₹120. What exchange ratio gives equal current value per target share, before any premium?
Correct
Exchange ratio = target price ÷ acquirer price = ₹120/₹240 = 0.50 acquirer shares per target share.
Incorrect
Exchange ratio = target price ÷ acquirer price = ₹120/₹240 = 0.50 acquirer shares per target share.
Unattempted
Exchange ratio = target price ÷ acquirer price = ₹120/₹240 = 0.50 acquirer shares per target share.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
A target trades at ₹120 per share and the offer is ₹150. What is the offer premium percentage?
Correct
Premium = (offer − unaffected price)/unaffected price × 100 = (150 − 120)/120 × 100 = 25%.
Incorrect
Premium = (offer − unaffected price)/unaffected price × 100 = (150 − 120)/120 × 100 = 25%.
Unattempted
Premium = (offer − unaffected price)/unaffected price × 100 = (150 − 120)/120 × 100 = 25%.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
Standalone EPS is ₹12 and post-deal EPS is ₹13.20. What is percentage EPS accretion or dilution?
Correct
Percentage change = (post EPS − standalone EPS)/standalone EPS × 100 = (13.20 − 12)/12 × 100 = 10% accretion.
Incorrect
Percentage change = (post EPS − standalone EPS)/standalone EPS × 100 = (13.20 − 12)/12 × 100 = 10% accretion.
Unattempted
Percentage change = (post EPS − standalone EPS)/standalone EPS × 100 = (13.20 − 12)/12 × 100 = 10% accretion.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Consideration is ₹500 crore and fair value of identifiable net assets is ₹370 crore. Ignoring other adjustments, what is goodwill?
Correct
Goodwill = consideration − fair value of identifiable net assets = ₹500 − ₹370 = ₹130 crore, subject to applicable accounting rules.
Incorrect
Goodwill = consideration − fair value of identifiable net assets = ₹500 − ₹370 = ₹130 crore, subject to applicable accounting rules.
Unattempted
Goodwill = consideration − fair value of identifiable net assets = ₹500 − ₹370 = ₹130 crore, subject to applicable accounting rules.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Present value of acquisition benefits is ₹200 crore and present value of acquisition/integration costs is ₹160 crore. What is incremental NPV?
Correct
Incremental NPV = PV benefits − PV costs = ₹200 − ₹160 = ₹40 crore.
Incorrect
Incremental NPV = PV benefits − PV costs = ₹200 − ₹160 = ₹40 crore.
Unattempted
Incremental NPV = PV benefits − PV costs = ₹200 − ₹160 = ₹40 crore.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Why might an acquisition agreement include an earn-out? (Practice variation 5: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
An earn-out makes part of consideration depend on future performance, helping bridge buyer/seller expectations but potentially creating disputes. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
An earn-out makes part of consideration depend on future performance, helping bridge buyer/seller expectations but potentially creating disputes. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
An earn-out makes part of consideration depend on future performance, helping bridge buyer/seller expectations but potentially creating disputes. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
Purchase price allocation generally involves: (Practice variation 5: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
Consideration is allocated to identifiable acquired assets and assumed liabilities at acquisition-date fair values; residual goodwill may arise. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
Consideration is allocated to identifiable acquired assets and assumed liabilities at acquisition-date fair values; residual goodwill may arise. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
Consideration is allocated to identifiable acquired assets and assumed liabilities at acquisition-date fair values; residual goodwill may arise. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Why should integration planning start before closing where legally permissible? (Practice variation 5: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
Early planning supports systems, people, customer and synergy execution, while respecting competition-law restrictions on pre-closing coordination. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
Early planning supports systems, people, customer and synergy execution, while respecting competition-law restrictions on pre-closing coordination. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
Early planning supports systems, people, customer and synergy execution, while respecting competition-law restrictions on pre-closing coordination. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
A leveraged buyout is characterised by: (Practice variation 5: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
An LBO finances a significant part of the acquisition with debt, relying on cash flows and/or assets for debt service, subject to structure and law. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
An LBO finances a significant part of the acquisition with debt, relying on cash flows and/or assets for debt service, subject to structure and law. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
An LBO finances a significant part of the acquisition with debt, relying on cash flows and/or assets for debt service, subject to structure and law. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Selling a non-core business unit is a: (Practice variation 5: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
A divestiture is disposal of a business, subsidiary or asset, often to sharpen focus or raise capital. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
A divestiture is disposal of a business, subsidiary or asset, often to sharpen focus or raise capital. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
A divestiture is disposal of a business, subsidiary or asset, often to sharpen focus or raise capital. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
Holding cash flows constant, what generally happens to DCF value if WACC rises? (Practice variation 5: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
A higher discount rate reduces present value of future cash flows, all else equal. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
A higher discount rate reduces present value of future cash flows, all else equal. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
A higher discount rate reduces present value of future cash flows, all else equal. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
If WACC remains above growth, what generally happens to Gordon terminal value when perpetual growth rises? (Practice variation 5: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
Terminal value = next-period cash flow/(WACC − g); increasing sustainable growth narrows the denominator and increases value. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
Terminal value = next-period cash flow/(WACC − g); increasing sustainable growth narrows the denominator and increases value. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
Terminal value = next-period cash flow/(WACC − g); increasing sustainable growth narrows the denominator and increases value. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Why do valuers often present a range rather than one exact value? (Practice variation 5: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
Forecasts, discount rates, comparable selection and transaction assumptions are uncertain; a range communicates uncertainty and avoids false precision. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
Forecasts, discount rates, comparable selection and transaction assumptions are uncertain; a range communicates uncertainty and avoids false precision. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
Forecasts, discount rates, comparable selection and transaction assumptions are uncertain; a range communicates uncertainty and avoids false precision. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
What is the purpose of a post-acquisition review? (Practice variation 5: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
It compares actual outcomes with the deal thesis, forecast and synergy targets, identifying lessons for future transactions. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
It compares actual outcomes with the deal thesis, forecast and synergy targets, identifying lessons for future transactions. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
It compares actual outcomes with the deal thesis, forecast and synergy targets, identifying lessons for future transactions. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
Which cash flow is discounted at WACC in a standard enterprise DCF? (Practice variation 6: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
FCFF is available to both debt and equity providers, so it is discounted at WACC to estimate enterprise value. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
FCFF is available to both debt and equity providers, so it is discounted at WACC to estimate enterprise value. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
FCFF is available to both debt and equity providers, so it is discounted at WACC to estimate enterprise value. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Which rate is appropriate for discounting free cash flow to equity? (Practice variation 6: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
FCFE is cash flow available to equity holders after operating investment and net borrowing; use cost of equity. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
FCFE is cash flow available to equity holders after operating investment and net borrowing; use cost of equity. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
FCFE is cash flow available to equity holders after operating investment and net borrowing; use cost of equity. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
A stable business has next-year FCFF of ₹61 crore, WACC 15% and perpetual growth 3%. What is terminal value?
Correct
Terminal value = next-year FCFF/(WACC − growth) = ₹61/(15% − 3%) = approximately ₹508.33 crore. Perpetual growth must remain below WACC.
Incorrect
Terminal value = next-year FCFF/(WACC − growth) = ₹61/(15% − 3%) = approximately ₹508.33 crore. Perpetual growth must remain below WACC.
Unattempted
Terminal value = next-year FCFF/(WACC − growth) = ₹61/(15% − 3%) = approximately ₹508.33 crore. Perpetual growth must remain below WACC.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
An increase in operating working capital generally has what effect on free cash flow? (Practice variation 6: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
An increase ties up cash in receivables or inventory net of payables, so it is deducted in the cash-flow calculation. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
An increase ties up cash in receivables or inventory net of payables, so it is deducted in the cash-flow calculation. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
An increase ties up cash in receivables or inventory net of payables, so it is deducted in the cash-flow calculation. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Why is depreciation added back when calculating cash flow from EBIT? (Practice variation 6: apply the same core concept to a new case.)
Correct
Depreciation is a non-cash accounting expense; it is added back, while actual capital expenditure is deducted separately. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Incorrect
Depreciation is a non-cash accounting expense; it is added back, while actual capital expenditure is deducted separately. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.
Unattempted
Depreciation is a non-cash accounting expense; it is added back, while actual capital expenditure is deducted separately. In an exam scenario, state the relevant assumption and avoid double counting or mixing valuation bases.