0 of 20 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
Information
- Questions: 20
You have already completed the Test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the Test.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this Test:
Your results are here!! for" CAIIB Paper 2 Module D Quiz 10 "
0 of 20 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
Your Final Score is : 0
You have attempted : 0
Number of Correct Questions : 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions : 0 and Negative marks 0
-
Not categorized
You have attempted: 0
Number of Correct Questions: 0 and scored 0
Number of Incorrect Questions: 0 and Negative marks 0
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 20
1. Question
A bank proposes to maximise NIM by funding long-term fixed-rate loans with overnight money. Which assessment is best?
Correct
Short-term funding may initially be cheaper, but it exposes the bank to repricing, rollover and liquidity stress. Sustainable ALM evaluates risk-adjusted profitability, not margin alone.
Incorrect
Short-term funding may initially be cheaper, but it exposes the bank to repricing, rollover and liquidity stress. Sustainable ALM evaluates risk-adjusted profitability, not margin alone.
Unattempted
Short-term funding may initially be cheaper, but it exposes the bank to repricing, rollover and liquidity stress. Sustainable ALM evaluates risk-adjusted profitability, not margin alone.
-
Question 2 of 20
2. Question
A bank has CET1 capital of ₹70 crore and RWA of ₹700 crore. Its CET1 ratio is:
Correct
CET1 ratio = CET1 capital ÷ RWA × 100 = ₹70 crore ÷ ₹700 crore × 100 = 10%. The applicable minimum plus buffers depends on the current regulatory framework.
Incorrect
CET1 ratio = CET1 capital ÷ RWA × 100 = ₹70 crore ÷ ₹700 crore × 100 = 10%. The applicable minimum plus buffers depends on the current regulatory framework.
Unattempted
CET1 ratio = CET1 capital ÷ RWA × 100 = ₹70 crore ÷ ₹700 crore × 100 = 10%. The applicable minimum plus buffers depends on the current regulatory framework.
-
Question 3 of 20
3. Question
Tier 2 capital is generally intended to provide:
Correct
Eligible Tier 2 instruments contribute to total regulatory capital and generally have gone-concern loss-absorption characteristics. They do not replace minimum CET1 or Tier 1 requirements.
Incorrect
Eligible Tier 2 instruments contribute to total regulatory capital and generally have gone-concern loss-absorption characteristics. They do not replace minimum CET1 or Tier 1 requirements.
Unattempted
Eligible Tier 2 instruments contribute to total regulatory capital and generally have gone-concern loss-absorption characteristics. They do not replace minimum CET1 or Tier 1 requirements.
-
Question 4 of 20
4. Question
A bank plans rapid loan growth. Which is the soundest capital-planning response?
Correct
Loan growth can increase RWA and reduce capital ratios unless capital grows correspondingly. Planning should consider risk weights, retained earnings, issuance, portfolio mix and stress outcomes.
Incorrect
Loan growth can increase RWA and reduce capital ratios unless capital grows correspondingly. Planning should consider risk weights, retained earnings, issuance, portfolio mix and stress outcomes.
Unattempted
Loan growth can increase RWA and reduce capital ratios unless capital grows correspondingly. Planning should consider risk weights, retained earnings, issuance, portfolio mix and stress outcomes.
-
Question 5 of 20
5. Question
In the LCR framework, why are inflows subject to regulatory limits/caps in the calculation?
Correct
Regulatory inflow caps prevent a bank from assuming that all expected inflows will arrive in stress and preserve the need for a genuine HQLA buffer. The detailed cap and treatment must follow current rules.
Incorrect
Regulatory inflow caps prevent a bank from assuming that all expected inflows will arrive in stress and preserve the need for a genuine HQLA buffer. The detailed cap and treatment must follow current rules.
Unattempted
Regulatory inflow caps prevent a bank from assuming that all expected inflows will arrive in stress and preserve the need for a genuine HQLA buffer. The detailed cap and treatment must follow current rules.
-
Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Which liability is generally more likely to contribute to stable funding than very short-term market borrowing?
Correct
Longer-term funding typically has a more stable maturity profile than overnight wholesale borrowing, though NSFR assigns factors according to liability type and counterparty. Reliability and concentration also matter.
Incorrect
Longer-term funding typically has a more stable maturity profile than overnight wholesale borrowing, though NSFR assigns factors according to liability type and counterparty. Reliability and concentration also matter.
Unattempted
Longer-term funding typically has a more stable maturity profile than overnight wholesale borrowing, though NSFR assigns factors according to liability type and counterparty. Reliability and concentration also matter.
-
Question 7 of 20
7. Question
A regular term-loan instalment remains overdue for 95 days, with no applicable special exception. What is the likely classification under the general rule?
Correct
Under the general 90-day norm, an ordinary term loan with principal or interest overdue for more than 90 days is classified as NPA. Subsequent subcategory and provisioning depend on the duration and applicable rules.
Incorrect
Under the general 90-day norm, an ordinary term loan with principal or interest overdue for more than 90 days is classified as NPA. Subsequent subcategory and provisioning depend on the duration and applicable rules.
Unattempted
Under the general 90-day norm, an ordinary term loan with principal or interest overdue for more than 90 days is classified as NPA. Subsequent subcategory and provisioning depend on the duration and applicable rules.
-
Question 8 of 20
8. Question
A bank increases provisions by ₹5 crore, with no tax or other effects. What is the immediate simplified impact on pre-tax profit?
Correct
An additional provision is an expense, so pre-tax profit falls by ₹5 crore, all else equal. Provisions also affect net asset values and regulatory reporting as applicable.
Incorrect
An additional provision is an expense, so pre-tax profit falls by ₹5 crore, all else equal. Provisions also affect net asset values and regulatory reporting as applicable.
Unattempted
An additional provision is an expense, so pre-tax profit falls by ₹5 crore, all else equal. Provisions also affect net asset values and regulatory reporting as applicable.
-
Question 9 of 20
9. Question
Why is accrual of unrealised interest on an NPA generally restricted under prudential income-recognition norms?
Correct
Restricting unrealised interest recognition avoids overstating income and profit on impaired assets. The bank recognises income in accordance with the applicable realisation-based rules.
Incorrect
Restricting unrealised interest recognition avoids overstating income and profit on impaired assets. The bank recognises income in accordance with the applicable realisation-based rules.
Unattempted
Restricting unrealised interest recognition avoids overstating income and profit on impaired assets. The bank recognises income in accordance with the applicable realisation-based rules.
-
Question 10 of 20
10. Question
For a conventional fixed-rate bond, if market yield rises, its price generally:
Correct
Bond prices and yields generally move inversely. A higher discount rate lowers the present value of fixed future cash flows, so the price falls, with sensitivity influenced by duration and convexity.
Incorrect
Bond prices and yields generally move inversely. A higher discount rate lowers the present value of fixed future cash flows, so the price falls, with sensitivity influenced by duration and convexity.
Unattempted
Bond prices and yields generally move inversely. A higher discount rate lowers the present value of fixed future cash flows, so the price falls, with sensitivity influenced by duration and convexity.
-
Question 11 of 20
11. Question
A bank has ₹1,000 crore RSA and ₹800 crore RSL in the relevant bucket. Market rates rise 0.40 percentage points. Under a simple gap model, approximate NII change is:
Correct
Gap = ₹1,000 crore − ₹800 crore = ₹200 crore. Rate change = 0.004. Approximate NII change = ₹200 crore × 0.004 = ₹0.8 crore positive, assuming full repricing and no other effects.
Incorrect
Gap = ₹1,000 crore − ₹800 crore = ₹200 crore. Rate change = 0.004. Approximate NII change = ₹200 crore × 0.004 = ₹0.8 crore positive, assuming full repricing and no other effects.
Unattempted
Gap = ₹1,000 crore − ₹800 crore = ₹200 crore. Rate change = 0.004. Approximate NII change = ₹200 crore × 0.004 = ₹0.8 crore positive, assuming full repricing and no other effects.
-
Question 12 of 20
12. Question
A bank’s largest depositor accounts for 18% of total deposits. What is the most relevant management concern?
Correct
A large depositor can create a significant cash need if funds are withdrawn. Management should monitor concentration, depositor behaviour, maturity, contingency options and stress assumptions.
Incorrect
A large depositor can create a significant cash need if funds are withdrawn. Management should monitor concentration, depositor behaviour, maturity, contingency options and stress assumptions.
Unattempted
A large depositor can create a significant cash need if funds are withdrawn. Management should monitor concentration, depositor behaviour, maturity, contingency options and stress assumptions.
-
Question 13 of 20
13. Question
A stress test shows that a plausible combined shock would exhaust the bank’s liquidity buffer. What is the best use of the result?
Correct
Stress testing identifies vulnerabilities and supports preventive actions such as additional buffers, funding diversification, limits or contingency measures. It is a decision tool, not an exact forecast.
Incorrect
Stress testing identifies vulnerabilities and supports preventive actions such as additional buffers, funding diversification, limits or contingency measures. It is a decision tool, not an exact forecast.
Unattempted
Stress testing identifies vulnerabilities and supports preventive actions such as additional buffers, funding diversification, limits or contingency measures. It is a decision tool, not an exact forecast.
-
Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Which statement correctly distinguishes regulatory capital from loan-loss provisions?
Correct
Capital is a loss-absorbing resource measured under regulatory rules, while provisions recognise credit losses or impairment. Their accounting and regulatory treatment differ, although both influence resilience.
Incorrect
Capital is a loss-absorbing resource measured under regulatory rules, while provisions recognise credit losses or impairment. Their accounting and regulatory treatment differ, although both influence resilience.
Unattempted
Capital is a loss-absorbing resource measured under regulatory rules, while provisions recognise credit losses or impairment. Their accounting and regulatory treatment differ, although both influence resilience.
-
Question 15 of 20
15. Question
A bank’s EVE declines materially under a rising-rate shock even though next-quarter NII improves. What does this indicate?
Correct
NII and EVE capture different dimensions and horizons. Repricing may improve near-term earnings while the present value of longer-term cash flows declines, so both should be evaluated.
Incorrect
NII and EVE capture different dimensions and horizons. Repricing may improve near-term earnings while the present value of longer-term cash flows declines, so both should be evaluated.
Unattempted
NII and EVE capture different dimensions and horizons. Repricing may improve near-term earnings while the present value of longer-term cash flows declines, so both should be evaluated.
-
Question 16 of 20
16. Question
Two loans have the same nominal interest rate, but one has higher expected loss and consumes more capital. Which is more likely?
Correct
Higher expected loss reduces risk-adjusted earnings, and greater capital use increases the denominator. Unless compensated by other factors, the higher-risk loan will have lower RAROC.
Incorrect
Higher expected loss reduces risk-adjusted earnings, and greater capital use increases the denominator. Unless compensated by other factors, the higher-risk loan will have lower RAROC.
Unattempted
Higher expected loss reduces risk-adjusted earnings, and greater capital use increases the denominator. Unless compensated by other factors, the higher-risk loan will have lower RAROC.
-
Question 17 of 20
17. Question
A long-term fixed-rate loan is funded internally using FTP. Why should the charge reflect tenor?
Correct
FTP should reflect relevant funding and liquidity characteristics, including tenor and repricing. This gives product managers a more accurate view of margin and discourages unrecognised maturity transformation.
Incorrect
FTP should reflect relevant funding and liquidity characteristics, including tenor and repricing. This gives product managers a more accurate view of margin and discourages unrecognised maturity transformation.
Unattempted
FTP should reflect relevant funding and liquidity characteristics, including tenor and repricing. This gives product managers a more accurate view of margin and discourages unrecognised maturity transformation.
-
Question 18 of 20
18. Question
A desk wants to exceed an approved interest-rate risk limit to exploit a market view. What is the proper governance response?
Correct
Limits implement the bank’s approved risk appetite. Any exception should follow formal authority and escalation procedures; speculative conviction does not itself authorise a breach.
Incorrect
Limits implement the bank’s approved risk appetite. Any exception should follow formal authority and escalation procedures; speculative conviction does not itself authorise a breach.
Unattempted
Limits implement the bank’s approved risk appetite. Any exception should follow formal authority and escalation procedures; speculative conviction does not itself authorise a breach.
-
Question 19 of 20
19. Question
When an exam question depends on a specific current RBI provisioning rate or Basel requirement, what should a candidate verify?
Correct
Regulatory rates and implementation details can change. Candidates should verify the latest RBI instructions and effective dates, while using the syllabus and current official materials as the authoritative basis.
Incorrect
Regulatory rates and implementation details can change. Candidates should verify the latest RBI instructions and effective dates, while using the syllabus and current official materials as the authoritative basis.
Unattempted
Regulatory rates and implementation details can change. Candidates should verify the latest RBI instructions and effective dates, while using the syllabus and current official materials as the authoritative basis.
-
Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Which decision best reflects integrated balance-sheet management?
Correct
Integrated balance-sheet management considers the interaction among earnings, funding, liquidity, capital, asset quality and market sensitivity. Optimising one measure in isolation can create hidden vulnerabilities elsewhere.
Incorrect
Integrated balance-sheet management considers the interaction among earnings, funding, liquidity, capital, asset quality and market sensitivity. Optimising one measure in isolation can create hidden vulnerabilities elsewhere.
Unattempted
Integrated balance-sheet management considers the interaction among earnings, funding, liquidity, capital, asset quality and market sensitivity. Optimising one measure in isolation can create hidden vulnerabilities elsewhere.