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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
Which Basel pillar covers minimum regulatory capital requirements for credit, market and operational risks?
Correct
Pillar 1 sets minimum capital requirements for specified risks. Pillar 2 is supervisory review and Pillar 3 is market discipline through disclosure.
Incorrect
Pillar 1 sets minimum capital requirements for specified risks. Pillar 2 is supervisory review and Pillar 3 is market discipline through disclosure.
Unattempted
Pillar 1 sets minimum capital requirements for specified risks. Pillar 2 is supervisory review and Pillar 3 is market discipline through disclosure.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
A supervisor evaluates whether a bank’s internal capital assessment adequately covers its risk profile. Which Basel pillar is most directly involved?
Correct
Pillar 2 is the Supervisory Review Process. It assesses whether banks have sound internal processes to evaluate capital adequacy relative to their risk profile and whether supervisors should require remedial action.
Incorrect
Pillar 2 is the Supervisory Review Process. It assesses whether banks have sound internal processes to evaluate capital adequacy relative to their risk profile and whether supervisors should require remedial action.
Unattempted
Pillar 2 is the Supervisory Review Process. It assesses whether banks have sound internal processes to evaluate capital adequacy relative to their risk profile and whether supervisors should require remedial action.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
Which Basel pillar relies significantly on disclosures that enable market participants to assess a bank’s risk and capital position?
Correct
Pillar 3 promotes market discipline through meaningful disclosures of capital, risk exposures, risk assessment processes and related information.
Incorrect
Pillar 3 promotes market discipline through meaningful disclosures of capital, risk exposures, risk assessment processes and related information.
Unattempted
Pillar 3 promotes market discipline through meaningful disclosures of capital, risk exposures, risk assessment processes and related information.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
A bank has total eligible capital of ₹120 crore and risk-weighted assets of ₹1,000 crore. What is its capital adequacy ratio?
Correct
Capital adequacy ratio = eligible regulatory capital ÷ risk-weighted assets × 100 = ₹120 crore ÷ ₹1,000 crore × 100 = 12%. Applicable minimums and buffers depend on current RBI rules and the bank category.
Incorrect
Capital adequacy ratio = eligible regulatory capital ÷ risk-weighted assets × 100 = ₹120 crore ÷ ₹1,000 crore × 100 = 12%. Applicable minimums and buffers depend on current RBI rules and the bank category.
Unattempted
Capital adequacy ratio = eligible regulatory capital ÷ risk-weighted assets × 100 = ₹120 crore ÷ ₹1,000 crore × 100 = 12%. Applicable minimums and buffers depend on current RBI rules and the bank category.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
Why are risk-weighted assets used instead of simply adding all balance-sheet assets?
Correct
Risk weights reflect regulatory assessments of relative risk across exposures. Risk-weighted assets provide a denominator for capital requirements that is more risk-sensitive than unweighted total assets.
Incorrect
Risk weights reflect regulatory assessments of relative risk across exposures. Risk-weighted assets provide a denominator for capital requirements that is more risk-sensitive than unweighted total assets.
Unattempted
Risk weights reflect regulatory assessments of relative risk across exposures. Risk-weighted assets provide a denominator for capital requirements that is more risk-sensitive than unweighted total assets.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Which instrument generally represents the highest-quality going-concern capital in Basel III?
Correct
CET1 consists primarily of common shares and retained earnings, subject to regulatory adjustments. It has the strongest ability to absorb losses while the bank remains a going concern.
Incorrect
CET1 consists primarily of common shares and retained earnings, subject to regulatory adjustments. It has the strongest ability to absorb losses while the bank remains a going concern.
Unattempted
CET1 consists primarily of common shares and retained earnings, subject to regulatory adjustments. It has the strongest ability to absorb losses while the bank remains a going concern.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Tier 1 capital is generally composed of which categories under Basel III?
Correct
Basel III Tier 1 capital comprises CET1 plus eligible Additional Tier 1 capital after applicable deductions and adjustments. Tier 2 is separate and contributes to total capital, not Tier 1.
Incorrect
Basel III Tier 1 capital comprises CET1 plus eligible Additional Tier 1 capital after applicable deductions and adjustments. Tier 2 is separate and contributes to total capital, not Tier 1.
Unattempted
Basel III Tier 1 capital comprises CET1 plus eligible Additional Tier 1 capital after applicable deductions and adjustments. Tier 2 is separate and contributes to total capital, not Tier 1.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
What is the main purpose of the capital conservation buffer?
Correct
The capital conservation buffer is an additional layer of capital intended to absorb losses during periods of stress. Falling into the buffer range can trigger restrictions on distributions under applicable rules.
Incorrect
The capital conservation buffer is an additional layer of capital intended to absorb losses during periods of stress. Falling into the buffer range can trigger restrictions on distributions under applicable rules.
Unattempted
The capital conservation buffer is an additional layer of capital intended to absorb losses during periods of stress. Falling into the buffer range can trigger restrictions on distributions under applicable rules.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
The countercyclical capital buffer is designed primarily to:
Correct
The countercyclical buffer addresses systemic risk associated with excessive aggregate credit growth. Authorities can activate or release it as conditions change, subject to the applicable framework.
Incorrect
The countercyclical buffer addresses systemic risk associated with excessive aggregate credit growth. Authorities can activate or release it as conditions change, subject to the applicable framework.
Unattempted
The countercyclical buffer addresses systemic risk associated with excessive aggregate credit growth. Authorities can activate or release it as conditions change, subject to the applicable framework.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
What distinguishes the Basel leverage ratio from the risk-based capital ratio?
Correct
The leverage ratio is a non-risk-based backstop, comparing Tier 1 capital with a broad exposure measure. Risk-based capital ratios instead use risk-weighted assets.
Incorrect
The leverage ratio is a non-risk-based backstop, comparing Tier 1 capital with a broad exposure measure. Risk-based capital ratios instead use risk-weighted assets.
Unattempted
The leverage ratio is a non-risk-based backstop, comparing Tier 1 capital with a broad exposure measure. Risk-based capital ratios instead use risk-weighted assets.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
Why may certain intangible assets be deducted from regulatory CET1 capital?
Correct
Regulatory adjustments seek to ensure capital is genuinely available to absorb losses. Some intangible assets may have limited loss-absorbing value in a resolution or stress scenario and are therefore deducted under rules.
Incorrect
Regulatory adjustments seek to ensure capital is genuinely available to absorb losses. Some intangible assets may have limited loss-absorbing value in a resolution or stress scenario and are therefore deducted under rules.
Unattempted
Regulatory adjustments seek to ensure capital is genuinely available to absorb losses. Some intangible assets may have limited loss-absorbing value in a resolution or stress scenario and are therefore deducted under rules.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
An undrawn eligible credit commitment may be converted to a credit exposure using which mechanism before applying the relevant risk weight?
Correct
For applicable off-balance-sheet items, a credit conversion factor converts the commitment into a credit-equivalent exposure. The relevant risk weight is then applied, subject to the current regulatory rules and exposure type.
Incorrect
For applicable off-balance-sheet items, a credit conversion factor converts the commitment into a credit-equivalent exposure. The relevant risk weight is then applied, subject to the current regulatory rules and exposure type.
Unattempted
For applicable off-balance-sheet items, a credit conversion factor converts the commitment into a credit-equivalent exposure. The relevant risk weight is then applied, subject to the current regulatory rules and exposure type.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
Which process is most associated with a bank’s Internal Capital Adequacy Assessment Process (ICAAP)?
Correct
ICAAP is part of the Pillar 2 framework. It should be proportionate to the bank’s nature, scale and complexity and assess capital needs for material risks, including risks not fully captured by Pillar 1.
Incorrect
ICAAP is part of the Pillar 2 framework. It should be proportionate to the bank’s nature, scale and complexity and assess capital needs for material risks, including risks not fully captured by Pillar 1.
Unattempted
ICAAP is part of the Pillar 2 framework. It should be proportionate to the bank’s nature, scale and complexity and assess capital needs for material risks, including risks not fully captured by Pillar 1.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
Which approach is most appropriate for forward-looking capital planning?
Correct
Capital planning should consider projected earnings, growth, distributions, regulatory changes and stress outcomes. It helps determine whether the bank can maintain adequate capital under plausible adverse conditions.
Incorrect
Capital planning should consider projected earnings, growth, distributions, regulatory changes and stress outcomes. It helps determine whether the bank can maintain adequate capital under plausible adverse conditions.
Unattempted
Capital planning should consider projected earnings, growth, distributions, regulatory changes and stress outcomes. It helps determine whether the bank can maintain adequate capital under plausible adverse conditions.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
If eligible capital stays constant while risk-weighted assets rise, what happens to the capital adequacy ratio?
Correct
The ratio is capital divided by RWA. If the numerator remains constant and the denominator increases, the ratio falls.
Incorrect
The ratio is capital divided by RWA. If the numerator remains constant and the denominator increases, the ratio falls.
Unattempted
The ratio is capital divided by RWA. If the numerator remains constant and the denominator increases, the ratio falls.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
Why should a bank avoid operating continuously at the exact regulatory minimum capital ratio?
Correct
A management buffer provides resilience against volatility, unexpected losses and RWA growth. The appropriate buffer depends on risk appetite, supervisory expectations, business plans and market conditions.
Incorrect
A management buffer provides resilience against volatility, unexpected losses and RWA growth. The appropriate buffer depends on risk appetite, supervisory expectations, business plans and market conditions.
Unattempted
A management buffer provides resilience against volatility, unexpected losses and RWA growth. The appropriate buffer depends on risk appetite, supervisory expectations, business plans and market conditions.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Under the Basel framework, market-risk capital requirements principally address losses arising from:
Correct
Market risk includes potential losses from movements in interest rates, foreign-exchange rates, equity prices and commodity prices for relevant positions. The precise scope and methods depend on applicable regulations.
Incorrect
Market risk includes potential losses from movements in interest rates, foreign-exchange rates, equity prices and commodity prices for relevant positions. The precise scope and methods depend on applicable regulations.
Unattempted
Market risk includes potential losses from movements in interest rates, foreign-exchange rates, equity prices and commodity prices for relevant positions. The precise scope and methods depend on applicable regulations.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
Operational risk is broadly associated with loss resulting from:
Correct
The Basel operational-risk concept covers loss from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or external events, including legal risk. Strategic and reputational risks are treated differently in the Basel definition.
Incorrect
The Basel operational-risk concept covers loss from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or external events, including legal risk. Strategic and reputational risks are treated differently in the Basel definition.
Unattempted
The Basel operational-risk concept covers loss from inadequate or failed internal processes, people and systems or external events, including legal risk. Strategic and reputational risks are treated differently in the Basel definition.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
Which disclosure best supports Pillar 3 market discipline?
Correct
Pillar 3 disclosures should be accurate, timely and comparable so market participants can evaluate a bank’s capital adequacy and risk profile. Confidential customer credentials are never appropriate disclosures.
Incorrect
Pillar 3 disclosures should be accurate, timely and comparable so market participants can evaluate a bank’s capital adequacy and risk profile. Confidential customer credentials are never appropriate disclosures.
Unattempted
Pillar 3 disclosures should be accurate, timely and comparable so market participants can evaluate a bank’s capital adequacy and risk profile. Confidential customer credentials are never appropriate disclosures.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Which statement is correct?
Correct
Capital is a loss-absorbing cushion; liquidity is the ability to meet obligations as they fall due. Strong capital does not automatically ensure adequate liquidity, so both need separate management.
Incorrect
Capital is a loss-absorbing cushion; liquidity is the ability to meet obligations as they fall due. Strong capital does not automatically ensure adequate liquidity, so both need separate management.
Unattempted
Capital is a loss-absorbing cushion; liquidity is the ability to meet obligations as they fall due. Strong capital does not automatically ensure adequate liquidity, so both need separate management.