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Question 1 of 20
1. Question
A household‘s decision about how much of its income to save is primarily studied under which branch of economics?
Correct
Microeconomics studies decisions made by individual consumers, households and firms, including consumption and saving choices. Macroeconomics examines aggregates such as total national saving, investment, output and employment. A household decision can influence aggregate outcomes, but the individual decision itself is a microeconomic topic.
Incorrect
Microeconomics studies decisions made by individual consumers, households and firms, including consumption and saving choices. Macroeconomics examines aggregates such as total national saving, investment, output and employment. A household decision can influence aggregate outcomes, but the individual decision itself is a microeconomic topic.
Unattempted
Microeconomics studies decisions made by individual consumers, households and firms, including consumption and saving choices. Macroeconomics examines aggregates such as total national saving, investment, output and employment. A household decision can influence aggregate outcomes, but the individual decision itself is a microeconomic topic.
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Question 2 of 20
2. Question
If the price of a product rises and its quantity demanded falls, while other factors remain unchanged, this is best described as:
Correct
A change in the product‘s own price normally causes a movement along a given demand curve. The law of demand states that, other things equal, a higher price is associated with a lower quantity demanded. A shift of the entire curve instead results from a non-price determinant such as income, tastes, expectations or the price of a related good.
Incorrect
A change in the product‘s own price normally causes a movement along a given demand curve. The law of demand states that, other things equal, a higher price is associated with a lower quantity demanded. A shift of the entire curve instead results from a non-price determinant such as income, tastes, expectations or the price of a related good.
Unattempted
A change in the product‘s own price normally causes a movement along a given demand curve. The law of demand states that, other things equal, a higher price is associated with a lower quantity demanded. A shift of the entire curve instead results from a non-price determinant such as income, tastes, expectations or the price of a related good.
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Question 3 of 20
3. Question
A rise in consumers‘ income increases demand for a good. Assuming other factors are unchanged, the good is most likely:
Correct
For a normal good, demand increases when consumer income increases, other things being equal. For an inferior good, demand generally decreases as income rises because consumers switch toward preferred alternatives. Giffen goods are a rare theoretical case involving an inferior good and a strong income effect; they are not implied merely by an increase in demand with income.
Incorrect
For a normal good, demand increases when consumer income increases, other things being equal. For an inferior good, demand generally decreases as income rises because consumers switch toward preferred alternatives. Giffen goods are a rare theoretical case involving an inferior good and a strong income effect; they are not implied merely by an increase in demand with income.
Unattempted
For a normal good, demand increases when consumer income increases, other things being equal. For an inferior good, demand generally decreases as income rises because consumers switch toward preferred alternatives. Giffen goods are a rare theoretical case involving an inferior good and a strong income effect; they are not implied merely by an increase in demand with income.
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Question 4 of 20
4. Question
The government imposes a binding price ceiling below the market-equilibrium price. What is the most likely immediate result in a competitive market?
Correct
A binding price ceiling is set below the equilibrium price. At the lower controlled price, consumers want to buy more while producers are willing to supply less, creating excess demand or a shortage. The ceiling does not automatically restore market clearing; non-price allocation or informal-market effects may arise.
Incorrect
A binding price ceiling is set below the equilibrium price. At the lower controlled price, consumers want to buy more while producers are willing to supply less, creating excess demand or a shortage. The ceiling does not automatically restore market clearing; non-price allocation or informal-market effects may arise.
Unattempted
A binding price ceiling is set below the equilibrium price. At the lower controlled price, consumers want to buy more while producers are willing to supply less, creating excess demand or a shortage. The ceiling does not automatically restore market clearing; non-price allocation or informal-market effects may arise.
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Question 5 of 20
5. Question
When a rise in coffee‘s price leads consumers to buy more tea, what does this indicate about the cross-price elasticity between the two goods?
Correct
Cross-price elasticity measures the percentage change in demand for one good in response to a percentage change in the price of another. A positive value generally indicates substitutes: when coffee becomes more expensive, demand for tea may rise. Complements tend to have negative cross-price elasticity because a higher price of one reduces demand for the other.
Incorrect
Cross-price elasticity measures the percentage change in demand for one good in response to a percentage change in the price of another. A positive value generally indicates substitutes: when coffee becomes more expensive, demand for tea may rise. Complements tend to have negative cross-price elasticity because a higher price of one reduces demand for the other.
Unattempted
Cross-price elasticity measures the percentage change in demand for one good in response to a percentage change in the price of another. A positive value generally indicates substitutes: when coffee becomes more expensive, demand for tea may rise. Complements tend to have negative cross-price elasticity because a higher price of one reduces demand for the other.
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Question 6 of 20
6. Question
Which comparison accurately describes a slowdown in inflation versus a decline in the overall price level?
Correct
Disinflation means inflation remains positive but slows—for example, annual inflation falls from 6% to 4%. Deflation means the general price level declines over a period, corresponding to negative inflation. The distinction matters because slower price increases are not the same as an overall fall in prices.
Incorrect
Disinflation means inflation remains positive but slows—for example, annual inflation falls from 6% to 4%. Deflation means the general price level declines over a period, corresponding to negative inflation. The distinction matters because slower price increases are not the same as an overall fall in prices.
Unattempted
Disinflation means inflation remains positive but slows—for example, annual inflation falls from 6% to 4%. Deflation means the general price level declines over a period, corresponding to negative inflation. The distinction matters because slower price increases are not the same as an overall fall in prices.
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Question 7 of 20
7. Question
Which of the following belongs in India‘s narrow monetary aggregate, M1?
Correct
India‘s M1 broadly includes currency with the public, demand deposits with the banking system, and other deposits with the RBI. Time deposits are included in broader monetary aggregates, not in M1. Securities and mutual fund units are financial assets but are not components of M1.
Incorrect
India‘s M1 broadly includes currency with the public, demand deposits with the banking system, and other deposits with the RBI. Time deposits are included in broader monetary aggregates, not in M1. Securities and mutual fund units are financial assets but are not components of M1.
Unattempted
India‘s M1 broadly includes currency with the public, demand deposits with the banking system, and other deposits with the RBI. Time deposits are included in broader monetary aggregates, not in M1. Securities and mutual fund units are financial assets but are not components of M1.
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Question 8 of 20
8. Question
A sustained increase in production costs, such as raw-material and energy costs, shifts aggregate supply left. The resulting combination is commonly associated with:
Correct
A negative supply shock raises firms‘ costs and reduces the quantity they are willing or able to produce at each price level. This can raise the general price level while lowering real output, a pattern often called cost-push inflation or stagflation when accompanied by stagnant activity. It differs from demand-pull inflation, which originates in stronger aggregate demand.
Incorrect
A negative supply shock raises firms‘ costs and reduces the quantity they are willing or able to produce at each price level. This can raise the general price level while lowering real output, a pattern often called cost-push inflation or stagflation when accompanied by stagnant activity. It differs from demand-pull inflation, which originates in stronger aggregate demand.
Unattempted
A negative supply shock raises firms‘ costs and reduces the quantity they are willing or able to produce at each price level. This can raise the general price level while lowering real output, a pattern often called cost-push inflation or stagflation when accompanied by stagnant activity. It differs from demand-pull inflation, which originates in stronger aggregate demand.
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Question 9 of 20
9. Question
In the classical theory of interest, the interest rate principally helps equilibrate:
Correct
In the classical loanable-funds view, the interest rate adjusts to bring planned saving into line with planned investment. A higher interest rate generally encourages saving and discourages investment, while a lower rate tends to do the opposite. Keynes‘ liquidity-preference approach instead emphasises money demand and money supply in determining the rate of interest.
Incorrect
In the classical loanable-funds view, the interest rate adjusts to bring planned saving into line with planned investment. A higher interest rate generally encourages saving and discourages investment, while a lower rate tends to do the opposite. Keynes‘ liquidity-preference approach instead emphasises money demand and money supply in determining the rate of interest.
Unattempted
In the classical loanable-funds view, the interest rate adjusts to bring planned saving into line with planned investment. A higher interest rate generally encourages saving and discourages investment, while a lower rate tends to do the opposite. Keynes‘ liquidity-preference approach instead emphasises money demand and money supply in determining the rate of interest.
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Question 10 of 20
10. Question
An investor holds cash because they expect market interest rates to rise and bond prices to fall. In Keynes‘ framework, which motive for holding money does this illustrate?
Correct
The speculative motive relates to uncertainty about future interest rates and bond prices. Bond prices and yields move inversely: someone expecting interest rates to rise may expect bond prices to fall and may prefer holding money temporarily. Transactions demand is instead associated with routine payments, while precautionary demand concerns unforeseen needs.
Incorrect
The speculative motive relates to uncertainty about future interest rates and bond prices. Bond prices and yields move inversely: someone expecting interest rates to rise may expect bond prices to fall and may prefer holding money temporarily. Transactions demand is instead associated with routine payments, while precautionary demand concerns unforeseen needs.
Unattempted
The speculative motive relates to uncertainty about future interest rates and bond prices. Bond prices and yields move inversely: someone expecting interest rates to rise may expect bond prices to fall and may prefer holding money temporarily. Transactions demand is instead associated with routine payments, while precautionary demand concerns unforeseen needs.
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Question 11 of 20
11. Question
In a standard IS–LM diagram, how does an increase in real money balances affect the LM schedule, assuming the price level is fixed?
Correct
With a fixed price level, a larger nominal money supply increases real money balances. At a given level of income, the interest rate consistent with money-market equilibrium falls; equivalently, the LM curve shifts rightward or downward. The IS curve represents goods-market equilibrium and does not shift solely because the money supply changes.
Incorrect
With a fixed price level, a larger nominal money supply increases real money balances. At a given level of income, the interest rate consistent with money-market equilibrium falls; equivalently, the LM curve shifts rightward or downward. The IS curve represents goods-market equilibrium and does not shift solely because the money supply changes.
Unattempted
With a fixed price level, a larger nominal money supply increases real money balances. At a given level of income, the interest rate consistent with money-market equilibrium falls; equivalently, the LM curve shifts rightward or downward. The IS curve represents goods-market equilibrium and does not shift solely because the money supply changes.
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Question 12 of 20
12. Question
Which sequence best represents the conventional phases of a business cycle?
Correct
A conventional business cycle moves through expansion, peak, contraction and trough. Output and employment generally rise during expansion, reach a cyclical high at the peak, decline during contraction, and reach a low at the trough before recovery. Actual cycles differ in duration and severity, and not every downturn has the same pattern.
Incorrect
A conventional business cycle moves through expansion, peak, contraction and trough. Output and employment generally rise during expansion, reach a cyclical high at the peak, decline during contraction, and reach a low at the trough before recovery. Actual cycles differ in duration and severity, and not every downturn has the same pattern.
Unattempted
A conventional business cycle moves through expansion, peak, contraction and trough. Output and employment generally rise during expansion, reach a cyclical high at the peak, decline during contraction, and reach a low at the trough before recovery. Actual cycles differ in duration and severity, and not every downturn has the same pattern.
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Question 13 of 20
13. Question
If the RBI sells government securities in the open market, what is the usual immediate effect on banking-system reserve liquidity?
Correct
When the central bank sells securities, buyers pay for them and funds are transferred out of the banking system to the central bank. This generally drains reserves and tightens liquidity, other things equal. A purchase generally injects reserves. Open-market operations are distinct from fiscal spending decisions by the government.
Incorrect
When the central bank sells securities, buyers pay for them and funds are transferred out of the banking system to the central bank. This generally drains reserves and tightens liquidity, other things equal. A purchase generally injects reserves. Open-market operations are distinct from fiscal spending decisions by the government.
Unattempted
When the central bank sells securities, buyers pay for them and funds are transferred out of the banking system to the central bank. This generally drains reserves and tightens liquidity, other things equal. A purchase generally injects reserves. Open-market operations are distinct from fiscal spending decisions by the government.
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Question 14 of 20
14. Question
A central bank reduces the cash reserve ratio (CRR), all else equal. What is the most direct expected effect on banks?
Correct
CRR is the prescribed share of specified bank liabilities that must be maintained as cash balances with the central bank. A reduction lowers the amount tied up in required reserves and may increase lendable liquidity. It does not mechanically guarantee a one-for-one fall in lending rates, since transmission depends on funding costs, risk, demand and other conditions.
Incorrect
CRR is the prescribed share of specified bank liabilities that must be maintained as cash balances with the central bank. A reduction lowers the amount tied up in required reserves and may increase lendable liquidity. It does not mechanically guarantee a one-for-one fall in lending rates, since transmission depends on funding costs, risk, demand and other conditions.
Unattempted
CRR is the prescribed share of specified bank liabilities that must be maintained as cash balances with the central bank. A reduction lowers the amount tied up in required reserves and may increase lendable liquidity. It does not mechanically guarantee a one-for-one fall in lending rates, since transmission depends on funding costs, risk, demand and other conditions.
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Question 15 of 20
15. Question
During a severe downturn, an increase in government expenditure financed by borrowing is best classified as:
Correct
An increase in government expenditure directly raises aggregate demand, other things equal, and is an example of expansionary fiscal policy. Borrowing to finance it may also affect interest rates, debt and private investment, depending on economic conditions. Monetary policy is conducted through instruments such as policy rates and liquidity operations, not the budget‘s expenditure decision itself.
Incorrect
An increase in government expenditure directly raises aggregate demand, other things equal, and is an example of expansionary fiscal policy. Borrowing to finance it may also affect interest rates, debt and private investment, depending on economic conditions. Monetary policy is conducted through instruments such as policy rates and liquidity operations, not the budget‘s expenditure decision itself.
Unattempted
An increase in government expenditure directly raises aggregate demand, other things equal, and is an example of expansionary fiscal policy. Borrowing to finance it may also affect interest rates, debt and private investment, depending on economic conditions. Monetary policy is conducted through instruments such as policy rates and liquidity operations, not the budget‘s expenditure decision itself.
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Question 16 of 20
16. Question
If nominal GDP is ₹330 lakh crore and real GDP is ₹300 lakh crore, using the GDP-deflator formula, the GDP deflator is:
Correct
GDP deflator = (Nominal GDP ÷ Real GDP) × 100. Here, (330 ÷ 300) × 100 = 110. A deflator of 110 means the measured price level of domestically produced final goods and services is 10% above the base-year level, assuming the standard index base of 100. It is not itself the annual inflation rate unless compared with a prior period‘s deflator.
Incorrect
GDP deflator = (Nominal GDP ÷ Real GDP) × 100. Here, (330 ÷ 300) × 100 = 110. A deflator of 110 means the measured price level of domestically produced final goods and services is 10% above the base-year level, assuming the standard index base of 100. It is not itself the annual inflation rate unless compared with a prior period‘s deflator.
Unattempted
GDP deflator = (Nominal GDP ÷ Real GDP) × 100. Here, (330 ÷ 300) × 100 = 110. A deflator of 110 means the measured price level of domestically produced final goods and services is 10% above the base-year level, assuming the standard index base of 100. It is not itself the annual inflation rate unless compared with a prior period‘s deflator.
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Question 17 of 20
17. Question
Which transaction is counted as a current production activity in GDP for the year in which it occurs?
Correct
GDP measures the market value of final goods and services produced within a country‘s economic territory during a period. A newly produced machine is current investment and is counted. A used car‘s original production was counted earlier; the resale itself is not new production, although any current dealer service is counted. Transfer payments and share purchases do not represent current production.
Incorrect
GDP measures the market value of final goods and services produced within a country‘s economic territory during a period. A newly produced machine is current investment and is counted. A used car‘s original production was counted earlier; the resale itself is not new production, although any current dealer service is counted. Transfer payments and share purchases do not represent current production.
Unattempted
GDP measures the market value of final goods and services produced within a country‘s economic territory during a period. A newly produced machine is current investment and is counted. A used car‘s original production was counted earlier; the resale itself is not new production, although any current dealer service is counted. Transfer payments and share purchases do not represent current production.
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Question 18 of 20
18. Question
A country‘s GDP rises, but its population rises at a faster percentage rate. What happens to GDP per capita?
Correct
GDP per capita is GDP divided by population. If population grows faster proportionately than GDP, GDP per capita falls. This indicator is an average and does not reveal how income is distributed, nor does it measure every aspect of welfare, but it helps distinguish aggregate output growth from output per person.
Incorrect
GDP per capita is GDP divided by population. If population grows faster proportionately than GDP, GDP per capita falls. This indicator is an average and does not reveal how income is distributed, nor does it measure every aspect of welfare, but it helps distinguish aggregate output growth from output per person.
Unattempted
GDP per capita is GDP divided by population. If population grows faster proportionately than GDP, GDP per capita falls. This indicator is an average and does not reveal how income is distributed, nor does it measure every aspect of welfare, but it helps distinguish aggregate output growth from output per person.
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Question 19 of 20
19. Question
In the Union Budget, the fiscal deficit is broadly the excess of:
Correct
Fiscal deficit broadly measures the government‘s total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings—that is, revenue receipts plus non-debt capital receipts. It indicates the borrowing requirement for the year. It is distinct from the revenue deficit, which compares revenue expenditure with revenue receipts, and from the primary deficit, which subtracts interest payments from the fiscal deficit.
Incorrect
Fiscal deficit broadly measures the government‘s total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings—that is, revenue receipts plus non-debt capital receipts. It indicates the borrowing requirement for the year. It is distinct from the revenue deficit, which compares revenue expenditure with revenue receipts, and from the primary deficit, which subtracts interest payments from the fiscal deficit.
Unattempted
Fiscal deficit broadly measures the government‘s total expenditure minus total receipts excluding borrowings—that is, revenue receipts plus non-debt capital receipts. It indicates the borrowing requirement for the year. It is distinct from the revenue deficit, which compares revenue expenditure with revenue receipts, and from the primary deficit, which subtracts interest payments from the fiscal deficit.
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Question 20 of 20
20. Question
Which statement about the primary deficit is correct?
Correct
Primary deficit is calculated as fiscal deficit minus interest payments. It indicates the current year‘s borrowing requirement excluding the interest burden arising from past debt. A low primary deficit does not mean the government has no fiscal deficit, because interest payments may still be substantial.
Incorrect
Primary deficit is calculated as fiscal deficit minus interest payments. It indicates the current year‘s borrowing requirement excluding the interest burden arising from past debt. A low primary deficit does not mean the government has no fiscal deficit, because interest payments may still be substantial.
Unattempted
Primary deficit is calculated as fiscal deficit minus interest payments. It indicates the current year‘s borrowing requirement excluding the interest burden arising from past debt. A low primary deficit does not mean the government has no fiscal deficit, because interest payments may still be substantial.